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NUR 170 Pharmacology Test Exam 2026-2027 BANK
QUESTIONS WITH DETAILED VERIFIED ANSWERS
EXAM QUESTIONS WILL COME FROM HERE (100%
Latest Already Graded A+
QUESTION 1
A patient with hypertension is prescribed lisinopril. Which adverse
effect is most commonly associated with this medication?
A) Hyperkalemia
B) Dry cough
C) Tachycardia
D) Weight gain
ANSWER: B
Lisinopril is an ACE inhibitor. The most common adverse effect is a
persistent dry cough, which occurs due to the accumulation of
bradykinin in the respiratory tract. While hyperkalemia is a potential
adverse effect, it is less common than cough. Tachycardia is not typical,
and weight gain is not directly associated with lisinopril.
QUESTION 2
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A nurse is providing education to a patient prescribed metformin for
type 2 diabetes. Which statement indicates that the patient
understands the medication?
A) I will take this medication with meals to reduce stomach upset.
B) I can expect to see immediate results in my blood sugar levels.
C) I should avoid carbohydrates while taking this medication.
D) I will take this medication on an empty stomach for best absorption.
ANSWER: A
Metformin frequently causes gastrointestinal distress including nausea,
diarrhea, and abdominal cramping. Taking metformin with meals
significantly reduces these effects. Blood glucose improvement is
gradual, not immediate. Carbohydrates do not need to be entirely
avoided, but consistent intake is encouraged. Taking metformin on an
empty stomach worsens GI side effects.
QUESTION 3
A patient receiving heparin therapy has an activated partial
thromboplastin time aPTT of 110 seconds. The nurse should anticipate
which intervention?
A) Increase the heparin infusion rate.
B) Decrease the heparin infusion rate or hold the infusion.
C) Administer protamine sulfate immediately.
D) Continue the current infusion rate.
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ANSWER: B
The therapeutic aPTT for heparin is typically 1.5 to 2.5 times the control
value, or around 60 to 80 seconds, depending on the laboratory
reference. An aPTT of 110 seconds indicates excessive anticoagulation
and a significant bleeding risk. The appropriate action is to decrease or
hold the infusion to prevent hemorrhage. Protamine sulfate is the
reversal agent for heparin, but it is reserved for severe bleeding, not
simply an elevated aPTT without bleeding.
QUESTION 4
A patient is prescribed digoxin for heart failure. The nurse should assess
for which early sign of digoxin toxicity?
A) Bradycardia
B) Anorexia, nausea, and vomiting
C) Hyperkalemia
D) Visual disturbances such as yellow halos
ANSWER: B
Gastrointestinal symptoms, including anorexia, nausea, and vomiting,
are among the earliest signs of digoxin toxicity. While bradycardia and
visual disturbances are also signs of toxicity, they typically present later.
Digoxin toxicity is associated with hyperkalemia in acute overdose, but
this is not an early sign in chronic toxicity. The classic visual disturbance,
xanthopsia yellow halos, occurs but is a later sign.
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QUESTION 5
A patient with tuberculosis is prescribed isoniazid INH and rifampin. The
nurse explains that rifampin will cause which harmless but important
side effect?
A) Red-orange discoloration of urine, sweat, and tears.
B) Peripheral neuropathy.
C) Hepatotoxicity.
D) Ototoxicity.
ANSWER: A
Rifampin is known for causing a harmless red-orange discoloration of
bodily fluids including urine, sweat, tears, and saliva. This is a benign
but important side effect to warn patients about to prevent unnecessary
alarm. Peripheral neuropathy is a side effect of isoniazid, not rifampin.
Hepatotoxicity can occur with both INH and rifampin but is a serious
adverse effect, not harmless. Ototoxicity is not associated with rifampin.
QUESTION 6
A nurse is caring for a patient receiving an IV infusion of dopamine.
Which assessment finding indicates a positive therapeutic response?
A) Decreased heart rate.
B) Increased urine output.
C) Decreased blood pressure.
D) Decreased respiratory rate.
NUR 170 Pharmacology Test Exam 2026-2027 BANK
QUESTIONS WITH DETAILED VERIFIED ANSWERS
EXAM QUESTIONS WILL COME FROM HERE (100%
Latest Already Graded A+
QUESTION 1
A patient with hypertension is prescribed lisinopril. Which adverse
effect is most commonly associated with this medication?
A) Hyperkalemia
B) Dry cough
C) Tachycardia
D) Weight gain
ANSWER: B
Lisinopril is an ACE inhibitor. The most common adverse effect is a
persistent dry cough, which occurs due to the accumulation of
bradykinin in the respiratory tract. While hyperkalemia is a potential
adverse effect, it is less common than cough. Tachycardia is not typical,
and weight gain is not directly associated with lisinopril.
QUESTION 2
,2|Page
A nurse is providing education to a patient prescribed metformin for
type 2 diabetes. Which statement indicates that the patient
understands the medication?
A) I will take this medication with meals to reduce stomach upset.
B) I can expect to see immediate results in my blood sugar levels.
C) I should avoid carbohydrates while taking this medication.
D) I will take this medication on an empty stomach for best absorption.
ANSWER: A
Metformin frequently causes gastrointestinal distress including nausea,
diarrhea, and abdominal cramping. Taking metformin with meals
significantly reduces these effects. Blood glucose improvement is
gradual, not immediate. Carbohydrates do not need to be entirely
avoided, but consistent intake is encouraged. Taking metformin on an
empty stomach worsens GI side effects.
QUESTION 3
A patient receiving heparin therapy has an activated partial
thromboplastin time aPTT of 110 seconds. The nurse should anticipate
which intervention?
A) Increase the heparin infusion rate.
B) Decrease the heparin infusion rate or hold the infusion.
C) Administer protamine sulfate immediately.
D) Continue the current infusion rate.
,3|Page
ANSWER: B
The therapeutic aPTT for heparin is typically 1.5 to 2.5 times the control
value, or around 60 to 80 seconds, depending on the laboratory
reference. An aPTT of 110 seconds indicates excessive anticoagulation
and a significant bleeding risk. The appropriate action is to decrease or
hold the infusion to prevent hemorrhage. Protamine sulfate is the
reversal agent for heparin, but it is reserved for severe bleeding, not
simply an elevated aPTT without bleeding.
QUESTION 4
A patient is prescribed digoxin for heart failure. The nurse should assess
for which early sign of digoxin toxicity?
A) Bradycardia
B) Anorexia, nausea, and vomiting
C) Hyperkalemia
D) Visual disturbances such as yellow halos
ANSWER: B
Gastrointestinal symptoms, including anorexia, nausea, and vomiting,
are among the earliest signs of digoxin toxicity. While bradycardia and
visual disturbances are also signs of toxicity, they typically present later.
Digoxin toxicity is associated with hyperkalemia in acute overdose, but
this is not an early sign in chronic toxicity. The classic visual disturbance,
xanthopsia yellow halos, occurs but is a later sign.
, 4|Page
QUESTION 5
A patient with tuberculosis is prescribed isoniazid INH and rifampin. The
nurse explains that rifampin will cause which harmless but important
side effect?
A) Red-orange discoloration of urine, sweat, and tears.
B) Peripheral neuropathy.
C) Hepatotoxicity.
D) Ototoxicity.
ANSWER: A
Rifampin is known for causing a harmless red-orange discoloration of
bodily fluids including urine, sweat, tears, and saliva. This is a benign
but important side effect to warn patients about to prevent unnecessary
alarm. Peripheral neuropathy is a side effect of isoniazid, not rifampin.
Hepatotoxicity can occur with both INH and rifampin but is a serious
adverse effect, not harmless. Ototoxicity is not associated with rifampin.
QUESTION 6
A nurse is caring for a patient receiving an IV infusion of dopamine.
Which assessment finding indicates a positive therapeutic response?
A) Decreased heart rate.
B) Increased urine output.
C) Decreased blood pressure.
D) Decreased respiratory rate.
