1|Page
ARRT Vascular Interventional Mock Exam 2026-2027 BANK
QUESTIONS WITH DETAILED VERIFIED ANSWERS EXAM
QUESTIONS WILL COME FROM HERE (100% Latest Already
Graded A+
QUESTION 1
A 65-year-old male with a history of hypertension and diabetes
presents with a non-healing ulcer on his right great toe. Ankle-brachial
index (ABI) is 0.45 on the right. Which of the following hemodynamic
parameters is most consistent with this presentation?
A) Normal pulse volume recording with biphasic waveforms
B) Decreased ankle systolic pressure with monophasic waveforms
C) Increased ankle-brachial index with triphasic waveforms
D) Normal toe-brachial index with biphasic waveforms
Answer: B
Explanation: The presentation is consistent with peripheral arterial
disease (PAD). ABI less than 0.90 indicates PAD, and values below 0.50
suggest severe ischemia. Monophasic waveforms indicate diminished
perfusion distal to a significant stenosis. The ulceration on the great toe
is a classic manifestation of chronic arterial insufficiency.
QUESTION 2
,2|Page
During a lower extremity arteriogram, the contrast agent extravasates
into the surrounding soft tissue. Which of the following is the most
appropriate immediate management step?
A) Administer intravenous diphenhydramine
B) Apply a tourniquet proximal to the extravasation site
C) Continue the procedure as planned
D) Elevate the extremity and apply warm compresses
Answer: D
Explanation: Contrast extravasation is managed conservatively with
elevation to reduce edema and warm compresses to promote
absorption. Cold compresses are generally avoided because
vasoconstriction may worsen tissue damage. Tourniquets are not
indicated and may compromise perfusion.
QUESTION 3
Which of the following is the preferred access site for a transjugular
intrahepatic portosystemic shunt (TIPS) procedure?
A) Common femoral vein
B) Internal jugular vein
C) Subclavian vein
D) Femoral artery
Answer: B
,3|Page
Explanation: TIPS is performed via the internal jugular vein approach.
The right internal jugular vein provides a straight path to the hepatic
veins, facilitating catheterization of the portal system. The femoral vein
is used for some venous interventions but does not offer the optimal
trajectory for TIPS.
QUESTION 4
A patient with end-stage renal disease has a tunneled hemodialysis
catheter that is suspected of being infected. Which of the following
organisms is most commonly associated with catheter-related
bloodstream infections in this population?
A) Escherichia coli
B) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
C) Staphylococcus aureus
D) Candida albicans
Answer: C
Explanation: Staphylococcus aureus, including methicillin-resistant
strains (MRSA), is the most common pathogen in hemodialysis catheter-
related infections. Gram-positive organisms predominate, with
coagulase-negative staphylococci also frequently implicated.
QUESTION 5
Which of the following imaging modalities provides the highest spatial
resolution for guiding peripheral vascular interventions?
, 4|Page
A) Computed tomography angiography (CTA)
B) Magnetic resonance angiography (MRA)
C) Digital subtraction angiography (DSA)
D) Duplex ultrasound
Answer: C
Explanation: Digital subtraction angiography remains the gold standard
for intraprocedural vascular imaging due to its superior spatial and
temporal resolution. DSA allows real-time visualization of vascular
anatomy and guides interventions with high precision.
QUESTION 6
In a patient with critical limb ischemia, which of the following findings
on angiography would indicate a failed infrapopliteal bypass graft?
A) Smooth tapering of the graft at the distal anastomosis
B) Filling defect within the graft lumen with distal opacification
C) Absence of flow beyond the distal anastomosis with collateral filling
D) Mild ectasia of the graft body
Answer: C
Explanation: Failure of an infrapopliteal bypass graft is indicated by
absence of flow beyond the distal anastomosis. Collateral filling may be
present but does not compensate for graft failure. A filling defect
ARRT Vascular Interventional Mock Exam 2026-2027 BANK
QUESTIONS WITH DETAILED VERIFIED ANSWERS EXAM
QUESTIONS WILL COME FROM HERE (100% Latest Already
Graded A+
QUESTION 1
A 65-year-old male with a history of hypertension and diabetes
presents with a non-healing ulcer on his right great toe. Ankle-brachial
index (ABI) is 0.45 on the right. Which of the following hemodynamic
parameters is most consistent with this presentation?
A) Normal pulse volume recording with biphasic waveforms
B) Decreased ankle systolic pressure with monophasic waveforms
C) Increased ankle-brachial index with triphasic waveforms
D) Normal toe-brachial index with biphasic waveforms
Answer: B
Explanation: The presentation is consistent with peripheral arterial
disease (PAD). ABI less than 0.90 indicates PAD, and values below 0.50
suggest severe ischemia. Monophasic waveforms indicate diminished
perfusion distal to a significant stenosis. The ulceration on the great toe
is a classic manifestation of chronic arterial insufficiency.
QUESTION 2
,2|Page
During a lower extremity arteriogram, the contrast agent extravasates
into the surrounding soft tissue. Which of the following is the most
appropriate immediate management step?
A) Administer intravenous diphenhydramine
B) Apply a tourniquet proximal to the extravasation site
C) Continue the procedure as planned
D) Elevate the extremity and apply warm compresses
Answer: D
Explanation: Contrast extravasation is managed conservatively with
elevation to reduce edema and warm compresses to promote
absorption. Cold compresses are generally avoided because
vasoconstriction may worsen tissue damage. Tourniquets are not
indicated and may compromise perfusion.
QUESTION 3
Which of the following is the preferred access site for a transjugular
intrahepatic portosystemic shunt (TIPS) procedure?
A) Common femoral vein
B) Internal jugular vein
C) Subclavian vein
D) Femoral artery
Answer: B
,3|Page
Explanation: TIPS is performed via the internal jugular vein approach.
The right internal jugular vein provides a straight path to the hepatic
veins, facilitating catheterization of the portal system. The femoral vein
is used for some venous interventions but does not offer the optimal
trajectory for TIPS.
QUESTION 4
A patient with end-stage renal disease has a tunneled hemodialysis
catheter that is suspected of being infected. Which of the following
organisms is most commonly associated with catheter-related
bloodstream infections in this population?
A) Escherichia coli
B) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
C) Staphylococcus aureus
D) Candida albicans
Answer: C
Explanation: Staphylococcus aureus, including methicillin-resistant
strains (MRSA), is the most common pathogen in hemodialysis catheter-
related infections. Gram-positive organisms predominate, with
coagulase-negative staphylococci also frequently implicated.
QUESTION 5
Which of the following imaging modalities provides the highest spatial
resolution for guiding peripheral vascular interventions?
, 4|Page
A) Computed tomography angiography (CTA)
B) Magnetic resonance angiography (MRA)
C) Digital subtraction angiography (DSA)
D) Duplex ultrasound
Answer: C
Explanation: Digital subtraction angiography remains the gold standard
for intraprocedural vascular imaging due to its superior spatial and
temporal resolution. DSA allows real-time visualization of vascular
anatomy and guides interventions with high precision.
QUESTION 6
In a patient with critical limb ischemia, which of the following findings
on angiography would indicate a failed infrapopliteal bypass graft?
A) Smooth tapering of the graft at the distal anastomosis
B) Filling defect within the graft lumen with distal opacification
C) Absence of flow beyond the distal anastomosis with collateral filling
D) Mild ectasia of the graft body
Answer: C
Explanation: Failure of an infrapopliteal bypass graft is indicated by
absence of flow beyond the distal anastomosis. Collateral filling may be
present but does not compensate for graft failure. A filling defect
