NEWEST CANNON TRUST SCHOOL 2
EXAM/CANNON TRUST SCHOOL 2 ACTUAL EXAM
2026 COMPLETE EXAM QUESTIONS AND CORRECT
DETAILED ANSWERS A NEW UPDATED VERSION
LATEST 2026-2027 FULLY REVISED EXAM VERSION
(100% CORRECT VERIFIED ANSWERS) ALREADY
GRADED A+
1. A patient with diabetic ketoacidosis presents with Kussmaul respirations.
What is the primary compensatory mechanism driving this breathing pattern?
A) Respiratory alkalosis
B) Metabolic acidosis
C) Metabolic alkalosis
D) Respiratory acidosis
Answer: B
Kussmaul respirations are deep, labored breathing patterns that occur as a
compensatory response to metabolic acidosis, where the body attempts to blow
off carbon dioxide to raise serum pH.
2. A client receiving warfarin therapy has an international normalized ratio of
4.5. Which intervention should the nurse anticipate?
A) Increase the next dose
B) Hold the dose and administer vitamin K
,C) Administer fresh frozen plasma only
D) Continue warfarin and recheck in 24 hours
Answer: B
An INR of 4.5 is above the therapeutic range of 2.0 to 3.0 for most indications,
increasing bleeding risk. Vitamin K is the antidote, and holding the next dose
is standard until the INR decreases.
3. A post-surgical patient develops redness, warmth, and purulent drainage at
the incision site. Which phase of wound healing is primarily affected?
A) Maturation phase
B) Proliferative phase
C) Inflammatory phase
D) Hemostasis phase
Answer: C
The inflammatory phase is characterized by vasodilation, increased capillary
permeability, and leukocyte migration, which produce signs of infection such
as redness, warmth, and purulent exudate.
4. A nurse is assessing a patient with hypokalemia. Which electrocardiogram
change is most commonly associated with this condition?
A) Peaked T waves
B) Prolonged PR interval
C) Flat or inverted T waves
D) Widened QRS complex
Answer: C
,Hypokalemia affects cardiac repolarization, leading to flattened or inverted T
waves, ST-segment depression, and prominent U waves, which can predispose
to arrhythmias.
5. A patient with heart failure is prescribed furosemide. Which laboratory
value requires the most immediate monitoring?
A) Serum sodium
B) Serum potassium
C) Serum calcium
D) Serum magnesium
Answer: B
Furosemide is a loop diuretic that causes potassium excretion, leading to
hypokalemia, which can precipitate cardiac arrhythmias in patients with heart
failure.
6. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease has an arterial blood
gas showing pH 7.32, PaCO2 58 mmHg, and HCO3 30 mEq/L. Which
condition is indicated?
A) Uncompensated respiratory acidosis
B) Fully compensated respiratory acidosis
C) Partially compensated respiratory acidosis
D) Metabolic alkalosis with respiratory compensation
Answer: C
The low pH indicates acidosis, elevated PaCO2 indicates respiratory origin,
and elevated HCO3 shows renal compensation, but since pH is still below
normal, compensation is partial.
, 7. A nurse is preparing to administer a blood transfusion. Which action is most
important to prevent a transfusion reaction?
A) Premedicate with diphenhydramine
B) Verify patient identity with two identifiers
C) Infuse the blood over 4 hours
D) Check the blood type with a second nurse
Answer: B
The most critical step in preventing hemolytic transfusion reactions is accurate
patient identification using at least two unique identifiers, such as name and
date of birth, against the blood product label.
8. A patient with cirrhosis develops ascites and spider angiomas. Which
pathophysiological mechanism is primarily responsible for these findings?
A) Decreased albumin synthesis
B) Portal hypertension
C) Increased bilirubin levels
D) Hepatic encephalopathy
Answer: B
Portal hypertension increases hydrostatic pressure in the splanchnic
circulation, leading to fluid leakage into the peritoneal cavity (ascites) and
shunting of blood that causes spider angiomas due to elevated estrogen levels.
9. A client is diagnosed with syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone
secretion. Which initial laboratory finding is expected?
A) Hypernatremia
B) Hyponatremia
EXAM/CANNON TRUST SCHOOL 2 ACTUAL EXAM
2026 COMPLETE EXAM QUESTIONS AND CORRECT
DETAILED ANSWERS A NEW UPDATED VERSION
LATEST 2026-2027 FULLY REVISED EXAM VERSION
(100% CORRECT VERIFIED ANSWERS) ALREADY
GRADED A+
1. A patient with diabetic ketoacidosis presents with Kussmaul respirations.
What is the primary compensatory mechanism driving this breathing pattern?
A) Respiratory alkalosis
B) Metabolic acidosis
C) Metabolic alkalosis
D) Respiratory acidosis
Answer: B
Kussmaul respirations are deep, labored breathing patterns that occur as a
compensatory response to metabolic acidosis, where the body attempts to blow
off carbon dioxide to raise serum pH.
2. A client receiving warfarin therapy has an international normalized ratio of
4.5. Which intervention should the nurse anticipate?
A) Increase the next dose
B) Hold the dose and administer vitamin K
,C) Administer fresh frozen plasma only
D) Continue warfarin and recheck in 24 hours
Answer: B
An INR of 4.5 is above the therapeutic range of 2.0 to 3.0 for most indications,
increasing bleeding risk. Vitamin K is the antidote, and holding the next dose
is standard until the INR decreases.
3. A post-surgical patient develops redness, warmth, and purulent drainage at
the incision site. Which phase of wound healing is primarily affected?
A) Maturation phase
B) Proliferative phase
C) Inflammatory phase
D) Hemostasis phase
Answer: C
The inflammatory phase is characterized by vasodilation, increased capillary
permeability, and leukocyte migration, which produce signs of infection such
as redness, warmth, and purulent exudate.
4. A nurse is assessing a patient with hypokalemia. Which electrocardiogram
change is most commonly associated with this condition?
A) Peaked T waves
B) Prolonged PR interval
C) Flat or inverted T waves
D) Widened QRS complex
Answer: C
,Hypokalemia affects cardiac repolarization, leading to flattened or inverted T
waves, ST-segment depression, and prominent U waves, which can predispose
to arrhythmias.
5. A patient with heart failure is prescribed furosemide. Which laboratory
value requires the most immediate monitoring?
A) Serum sodium
B) Serum potassium
C) Serum calcium
D) Serum magnesium
Answer: B
Furosemide is a loop diuretic that causes potassium excretion, leading to
hypokalemia, which can precipitate cardiac arrhythmias in patients with heart
failure.
6. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease has an arterial blood
gas showing pH 7.32, PaCO2 58 mmHg, and HCO3 30 mEq/L. Which
condition is indicated?
A) Uncompensated respiratory acidosis
B) Fully compensated respiratory acidosis
C) Partially compensated respiratory acidosis
D) Metabolic alkalosis with respiratory compensation
Answer: C
The low pH indicates acidosis, elevated PaCO2 indicates respiratory origin,
and elevated HCO3 shows renal compensation, but since pH is still below
normal, compensation is partial.
, 7. A nurse is preparing to administer a blood transfusion. Which action is most
important to prevent a transfusion reaction?
A) Premedicate with diphenhydramine
B) Verify patient identity with two identifiers
C) Infuse the blood over 4 hours
D) Check the blood type with a second nurse
Answer: B
The most critical step in preventing hemolytic transfusion reactions is accurate
patient identification using at least two unique identifiers, such as name and
date of birth, against the blood product label.
8. A patient with cirrhosis develops ascites and spider angiomas. Which
pathophysiological mechanism is primarily responsible for these findings?
A) Decreased albumin synthesis
B) Portal hypertension
C) Increased bilirubin levels
D) Hepatic encephalopathy
Answer: B
Portal hypertension increases hydrostatic pressure in the splanchnic
circulation, leading to fluid leakage into the peritoneal cavity (ascites) and
shunting of blood that causes spider angiomas due to elevated estrogen levels.
9. A client is diagnosed with syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone
secretion. Which initial laboratory finding is expected?
A) Hypernatremia
B) Hyponatremia
