Hondros NUR 212 Exam 2 Actual
Exam 2026/2027 | Verified Questions
Hondros College of Nursing | Verified Q&A | Professional
Nursing Students
50 Official Examination Questions | 39 Correct Selections Required (78% Passing Score)
This comprehensive examination set comprises exactly 50 original questions designed to
reinforce official Hondros NUR 212 course objectives for actual exam readiness and clinical
proficiency, representing the standard comprehensive Hondros NUR 212 module examination
blueprint. The examination covers four primary domains: Renal and Genitourinary Disorders
(e.g., Acute Kidney Injury, Chronic Kidney Disease, Dialysis); Neurological Disorders (e.g.,
Stroke, Parkinson's Disease, Seizures); Endocrine and Metabolic Disorders (e.g., Diabetes
Mellitus, Thyroid Dysfunction); and Gastrointestinal and Hepatic Disorders. In accordance with
official Hondros College of Nursing curriculum benchmarks, candidates must complete 50
questions and achieve a minimum of 39 correct selections to attain the required 78% passing
score. Each item in this verified collection addresses distinct pathophysiological mechanisms,
clinical nursing assessments, prioritization scenarios, and evidence-based standards of care to
ensure complete mastery of professional adult nursing care competencies in 2026/2027.
Domain: Renal and Genitourinary Disorders
1. A patient with acute kidney injury (AKI) secondary to hypovolemic shock
exhibits a urine output of 15 mL/hr, a blood urea nitrogen (BUN) of 45 mg/dL, and
serum creatinine of 2.1 mg/dL. Which pathophysiological mechanism and initial
nursing intervention are most appropriate for this prerenal etiology?
A. Direct nephrotoxic injury to renal tubules; administer loop diuretics immediately
B. Decreased renal blood flow and glomerular filtration; administer prescribed intravenous
isotonic crystalloid fluid resuscitation to restore renal perfusion
C. Bilateral ureteral calculus obstruction; prepare the patient for emergent lithotripsy
D. Glomerular antigen-antibody deposition; administer high-dose intravenous
corticosteroids
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Prerenal acute kidney injury is caused by intravascular volume depletion or
hypotension, leading to decreased renal arterial perfusion and reduced glomerular
filtration rate (GFR). The primary clinical priority is restoring intravascular volume and
renal blood flow through prompt intravenous isotonic fluid resuscitation before permanent
intrinsic tubular necrosis occurs.
Hondros NUR 212 Exam 2 Actual Exam 2026/2027 | Verified Questions
,2. Which hospitalized patient is at greatest risk for developing intrarenal acute
kidney injury (acute tubular necrosis), requiring close monitoring of serum
creatinine and urine output?
A. A patient receiving parenteral nutrition following a laparoscopic cholecystectomy
B. A patient receiving intravenous gentamicin and iodinated contrast media for a diagnostic
imaging assessment of a deep arterial graft
C. A patient receiving subcutaneous heparin and oral warfarin for deep vein thrombosis
D. A patient with benign prostatic hyperplasia and mild nocturia
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Intrarenal acute kidney injury (acute tubular necrosis) frequently results from
direct nephrotoxic damage to tubular epithelial cells. Aminoglycoside antibiotics (such as
gentamicin) and iodinated intravenous contrast agents are potent nephrotoxins;
combining them significantly increases the incidence of intrarenal tubular necrosis.
3. An adult male patient with chronic severe benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH)
presents with anuria, lower abdominal distension, and bilateral hydronephrosis
on ultrasound assessment. How should the nurse classify this renal disorder?
A. Prerenal acute kidney injury caused by systemic vasodilation
B. Postrenal acute kidney injury caused by mechanical obstruction of urinary outflow
C. Intrarenal acute kidney injury caused by glomerular microthrombi
D. Chronic nephrotic syndrome caused by tubular protein wasting
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Postrenal acute kidney injury occurs when mechanical obstruction in the lower
urinary tract (such as severe benign prostatic hyperplasia, urethral strictures, or bilateral
ureteral calculi) impedes urine outflow, causing retrograde hydrostatic pressure,
hydronephrosis, and impaired glomerular filtration.
4. A patient with chronic kidney disease (CKD) presents with a serum potassium
level of 6.8 mEq/L and peaked T waves on electrocardiogram assessment. Which
emergency pharmacologic intervention should the nurse administer immediately
to drive potassium into intracellular spaces?
A. Oral sodium polystyrene sulfonate with sorbitol
B. Intravenous regular insulin co-administered with 50 percent dextrose in water
C. Subcutaneous epoetin alfa injection
D. Oral sevelamer hydrochloride with a meal
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In acute hyperkalemia with cardiac conduction abnormalities (peaked T
waves), immediate administration of intravenous regular insulin combined with 50%
dextrose rapidly shifts potassium from the extracellular fluid into the intracellular space,
lowering serum potassium within 15 to 30 minutes. Calcium gluconate should also be given
to stabilize myocardial membranes.
5. Why should a nurse instruct a patient with chronic kidney disease mineral and
bone disorder (CKD-MBD) to take prescribed sevelamer carbonate strictly with
meals?
A. To stimulate gastrointestinal motility and prevent bowel obstruction
Hondros NUR 212 Exam 2 Actual Exam 2026/2027 | Verified Questions
, B. To bind dietary phosphorus in the intestinal tract, preventing its systemic absorption and
mitigating reciprocal hypocalcemia and secondary hyperparathyroidism
C. To promote gastric absorption of dietary iron and prevent chronic renal anemia
D. To neutralize excess gastric acid and prevent peptic ulcer disease
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Sevelamer carbonate is a non-calcium, non-aluminum phosphate binder.
Taking it directly with meals allows the polymer to bind dietary phosphorus in the
gastrointestinal lumen, excreting it in stool and preventing hyperphosphatemia, which
otherwise triggers reciprocal hypocalcemia, secondary hyperparathyroidism, and renal
osteodystrophy.
6. A patient with end-stage renal disease (ESRD) receiving hemodialysis is
prescribed subcutaneous epoetin alfa. Which laboratory assessment finding
indicates that the medication dosage should be held or reduced according to
evidence-based renal guidelines?
A. Serum potassium level of 4.5 mEq/L
B. Hemoglobin concentration of 11.8 g/dL (exceeding the target ceiling of 11.0 g/dL)
C. Serum albumin level of 3.8 g/dL
D. Serum phosphorus level of 4.2 mg/dL
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Epoetin alfa stimulates erythropoiesis in patients with chronic kidney disease
who lack endogenous renal erythropoietin. Clinical standard guidelines mandate
maintaining hemoglobin levels between 10.0 and 11.0 g/dL; exceeding 11.0 g/dL
significantly increases the incidence of severe hypertension, vascular thrombosis, and
myocardial infarction.
7. A nurse is assessing an arteriovenous (AV) fistula in the left forearm of a patient
undergoing chronic hemodialysis. Which assessment finding demonstrates
patency of the vascular access, and what protective intervention is mandatory?
A. Palpable radial pulse distal to the site; permit standard venipuncture on the left arm
B. Palpable continuous thrill and auscultated bruit over the fistula; prohibit all blood
pressure measurements, intravenous line insertions, and venipunctures on the left arm
C. Absence of vibration and a silent auscultatory field; apply a circumferential pressure
dressing
D. Warm, erythematous skin over the fistula; irrigate the fistula daily with normal saline
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A patent arteriovenous fistula creates a continuous palpable thrill and an
audible auscultated bruit due to high-velocity turbulent blood flow between the artery and
vein. To prevent vascular thrombosis, stenosis, or vessel rupture, nurses must strictly
prohibit blood pressure readings, IV infusions, and venipunctures on the extremity housing
the fistula.
8. During a rapid hemodialysis session, a patient develops severe headache,
nausea, restlessness, and progressive disorientation. Which complication should
the nurse recognize, and what is the primary pathophysiological cause?
Hondros NUR 212 Exam 2 Actual Exam 2026/2027 | Verified Questions
Exam 2026/2027 | Verified Questions
Hondros College of Nursing | Verified Q&A | Professional
Nursing Students
50 Official Examination Questions | 39 Correct Selections Required (78% Passing Score)
This comprehensive examination set comprises exactly 50 original questions designed to
reinforce official Hondros NUR 212 course objectives for actual exam readiness and clinical
proficiency, representing the standard comprehensive Hondros NUR 212 module examination
blueprint. The examination covers four primary domains: Renal and Genitourinary Disorders
(e.g., Acute Kidney Injury, Chronic Kidney Disease, Dialysis); Neurological Disorders (e.g.,
Stroke, Parkinson's Disease, Seizures); Endocrine and Metabolic Disorders (e.g., Diabetes
Mellitus, Thyroid Dysfunction); and Gastrointestinal and Hepatic Disorders. In accordance with
official Hondros College of Nursing curriculum benchmarks, candidates must complete 50
questions and achieve a minimum of 39 correct selections to attain the required 78% passing
score. Each item in this verified collection addresses distinct pathophysiological mechanisms,
clinical nursing assessments, prioritization scenarios, and evidence-based standards of care to
ensure complete mastery of professional adult nursing care competencies in 2026/2027.
Domain: Renal and Genitourinary Disorders
1. A patient with acute kidney injury (AKI) secondary to hypovolemic shock
exhibits a urine output of 15 mL/hr, a blood urea nitrogen (BUN) of 45 mg/dL, and
serum creatinine of 2.1 mg/dL. Which pathophysiological mechanism and initial
nursing intervention are most appropriate for this prerenal etiology?
A. Direct nephrotoxic injury to renal tubules; administer loop diuretics immediately
B. Decreased renal blood flow and glomerular filtration; administer prescribed intravenous
isotonic crystalloid fluid resuscitation to restore renal perfusion
C. Bilateral ureteral calculus obstruction; prepare the patient for emergent lithotripsy
D. Glomerular antigen-antibody deposition; administer high-dose intravenous
corticosteroids
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Prerenal acute kidney injury is caused by intravascular volume depletion or
hypotension, leading to decreased renal arterial perfusion and reduced glomerular
filtration rate (GFR). The primary clinical priority is restoring intravascular volume and
renal blood flow through prompt intravenous isotonic fluid resuscitation before permanent
intrinsic tubular necrosis occurs.
Hondros NUR 212 Exam 2 Actual Exam 2026/2027 | Verified Questions
,2. Which hospitalized patient is at greatest risk for developing intrarenal acute
kidney injury (acute tubular necrosis), requiring close monitoring of serum
creatinine and urine output?
A. A patient receiving parenteral nutrition following a laparoscopic cholecystectomy
B. A patient receiving intravenous gentamicin and iodinated contrast media for a diagnostic
imaging assessment of a deep arterial graft
C. A patient receiving subcutaneous heparin and oral warfarin for deep vein thrombosis
D. A patient with benign prostatic hyperplasia and mild nocturia
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Intrarenal acute kidney injury (acute tubular necrosis) frequently results from
direct nephrotoxic damage to tubular epithelial cells. Aminoglycoside antibiotics (such as
gentamicin) and iodinated intravenous contrast agents are potent nephrotoxins;
combining them significantly increases the incidence of intrarenal tubular necrosis.
3. An adult male patient with chronic severe benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH)
presents with anuria, lower abdominal distension, and bilateral hydronephrosis
on ultrasound assessment. How should the nurse classify this renal disorder?
A. Prerenal acute kidney injury caused by systemic vasodilation
B. Postrenal acute kidney injury caused by mechanical obstruction of urinary outflow
C. Intrarenal acute kidney injury caused by glomerular microthrombi
D. Chronic nephrotic syndrome caused by tubular protein wasting
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Postrenal acute kidney injury occurs when mechanical obstruction in the lower
urinary tract (such as severe benign prostatic hyperplasia, urethral strictures, or bilateral
ureteral calculi) impedes urine outflow, causing retrograde hydrostatic pressure,
hydronephrosis, and impaired glomerular filtration.
4. A patient with chronic kidney disease (CKD) presents with a serum potassium
level of 6.8 mEq/L and peaked T waves on electrocardiogram assessment. Which
emergency pharmacologic intervention should the nurse administer immediately
to drive potassium into intracellular spaces?
A. Oral sodium polystyrene sulfonate with sorbitol
B. Intravenous regular insulin co-administered with 50 percent dextrose in water
C. Subcutaneous epoetin alfa injection
D. Oral sevelamer hydrochloride with a meal
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In acute hyperkalemia with cardiac conduction abnormalities (peaked T
waves), immediate administration of intravenous regular insulin combined with 50%
dextrose rapidly shifts potassium from the extracellular fluid into the intracellular space,
lowering serum potassium within 15 to 30 minutes. Calcium gluconate should also be given
to stabilize myocardial membranes.
5. Why should a nurse instruct a patient with chronic kidney disease mineral and
bone disorder (CKD-MBD) to take prescribed sevelamer carbonate strictly with
meals?
A. To stimulate gastrointestinal motility and prevent bowel obstruction
Hondros NUR 212 Exam 2 Actual Exam 2026/2027 | Verified Questions
, B. To bind dietary phosphorus in the intestinal tract, preventing its systemic absorption and
mitigating reciprocal hypocalcemia and secondary hyperparathyroidism
C. To promote gastric absorption of dietary iron and prevent chronic renal anemia
D. To neutralize excess gastric acid and prevent peptic ulcer disease
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Sevelamer carbonate is a non-calcium, non-aluminum phosphate binder.
Taking it directly with meals allows the polymer to bind dietary phosphorus in the
gastrointestinal lumen, excreting it in stool and preventing hyperphosphatemia, which
otherwise triggers reciprocal hypocalcemia, secondary hyperparathyroidism, and renal
osteodystrophy.
6. A patient with end-stage renal disease (ESRD) receiving hemodialysis is
prescribed subcutaneous epoetin alfa. Which laboratory assessment finding
indicates that the medication dosage should be held or reduced according to
evidence-based renal guidelines?
A. Serum potassium level of 4.5 mEq/L
B. Hemoglobin concentration of 11.8 g/dL (exceeding the target ceiling of 11.0 g/dL)
C. Serum albumin level of 3.8 g/dL
D. Serum phosphorus level of 4.2 mg/dL
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Epoetin alfa stimulates erythropoiesis in patients with chronic kidney disease
who lack endogenous renal erythropoietin. Clinical standard guidelines mandate
maintaining hemoglobin levels between 10.0 and 11.0 g/dL; exceeding 11.0 g/dL
significantly increases the incidence of severe hypertension, vascular thrombosis, and
myocardial infarction.
7. A nurse is assessing an arteriovenous (AV) fistula in the left forearm of a patient
undergoing chronic hemodialysis. Which assessment finding demonstrates
patency of the vascular access, and what protective intervention is mandatory?
A. Palpable radial pulse distal to the site; permit standard venipuncture on the left arm
B. Palpable continuous thrill and auscultated bruit over the fistula; prohibit all blood
pressure measurements, intravenous line insertions, and venipunctures on the left arm
C. Absence of vibration and a silent auscultatory field; apply a circumferential pressure
dressing
D. Warm, erythematous skin over the fistula; irrigate the fistula daily with normal saline
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A patent arteriovenous fistula creates a continuous palpable thrill and an
audible auscultated bruit due to high-velocity turbulent blood flow between the artery and
vein. To prevent vascular thrombosis, stenosis, or vessel rupture, nurses must strictly
prohibit blood pressure readings, IV infusions, and venipunctures on the extremity housing
the fistula.
8. During a rapid hemodialysis session, a patient develops severe headache,
nausea, restlessness, and progressive disorientation. Which complication should
the nurse recognize, and what is the primary pathophysiological cause?
Hondros NUR 212 Exam 2 Actual Exam 2026/2027 | Verified Questions
