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SECTION 6: FUNDAMENTALS OF IV THERAPY – CNJNE IV
CERTIFICATION Exam 2026-2027 BANK QUESTIONS WITH
DETAILED VERIFIED ANSWERS EXAM QUESTIONS WILL
COME FROM HERE (100% Latest Already Graded A+
1. A patient is prescribed an intravenous infusion of 0.9% sodium
chloride at 125 mL/hour. The drop factor of the administration set is 15
drops/mL. What is the flow rate in drops per minute?
A) 31 gtt/min
B) 15 gtt/min
C) 125 gtt/min
D) 8 gtt/min
Answer: A) 31 gtt/min
Explanation: The formula for calculating drops per minute is (Volume in
mL × drop factor) / time in minutes. Here, (125 mL × 15 gtt/mL) / 60
minutes = = 31.25, rounded to 31 gtt/min. This ensures
accurate infusion delivery.
2. Which of the following is the most appropriate gauge of an
intravenous catheter for administering a blood transfusion to an adult
patient?
A) 14-gauge
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B) 18-gauge
C) 22-gauge
D) 24-gauge
Answer: B) 18-gauge
Explanation: Blood transfusions require a larger gauge catheter (18-
gauge or larger) to prevent hemolysis and allow adequate flow rates.
Smaller gauges like 22 or 24 increase the risk of red blood cell damage
and sluggish flow.
3. When preparing a continuous intravenous infusion of dopamine,
which action is most critical to patient safety?
A) Verify the infusion pump settings with another licensed nurse.
B) Prime the tubing with the dopamine solution.
C) Label the infusion bag with the patient’s name and date.
D) Assess the IV site for signs of infiltration.
Answer: A) Verify the infusion pump settings with another licensed
nurse.
Explanation: Dopamine is a vasopressor with potent hemodynamic
effects. Double-checking pump settings with another licensed nurse
minimizes the risk of life-threatening dosing errors. While the other
options are appropriate, they do not address the high-alert nature of
this medication.
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4. A patient receiving IV fluids complains of shortness of breath and has
crackles in the lung bases. The nurse notes jugular venous distention.
What is the most likely complication?
A) Anaphylactic reaction
B) Fluid volume overload
C) Air embolism
D) Catheter-related bloodstream infection
Answer: B) Fluid volume overload
Explanation: The symptoms of shortness of breath, crackles, and jugular
venous distention are classic signs of fluid volume overload or
congestive heart failure exacerbation. This occurs when IV fluids are
infused too rapidly or in excessive volume.
5. What is the primary purpose of adding a 0.22-micron filter to an
intravenous administration set?
A) To remove air bubbles from the IV line.
B) To prevent particulate matter from entering the patient’s circulation.
C) To regulate the flow rate of the infusion.
D) To reduce the risk of phlebitis.
Answer: B) To prevent particulate matter from entering the patient’s
circulation.
Explanation: A 0.22-micron filter is designed to trap bacteria, fungi, and
particulate debris. It does not remove air bubbles, regulate flow, or
directly prevent phlebitis, though reducing particulates may indirectly
lower phlebitis risk.
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6. Which of the following is a contraindication for the use of a
peripherally inserted central catheter?
A) Long-term antibiotic therapy
B) History of recurrent deep vein thrombosis in the upper extremity
C) Administration of total parenteral nutrition
D) Need for frequent blood sampling
Answer: B) History of recurrent deep vein thrombosis in the upper
extremity
Explanation: A history of recurrent deep vein thrombosis in the upper
extremity is a relative contraindication because PICC placement can
exacerbate thrombotic risk. The other options are common indications
for PICC use.
7. The nurse is calculating the intravenous infusion rate for a patient
requiring 1,000 mL of lactated Ringer’s over 8 hours. The administration
set delivers 20 drops/mL. What is the drip rate?
A) 42 gtt/min
B) 125 gtt/min
C) 21 gtt/min
D) 83 gtt/min
Answer: A) 42 gtt/min
Explanation: Total volume 1,000 mL over 8 hours = 125 mL/hour.
Convert to minutes: 125 mL/hour × 20 gtt/mL = 2,500 gtt/hour; divided
by 60 minutes = 41.67, rounded to 42 gtt/min.
SECTION 6: FUNDAMENTALS OF IV THERAPY – CNJNE IV
CERTIFICATION Exam 2026-2027 BANK QUESTIONS WITH
DETAILED VERIFIED ANSWERS EXAM QUESTIONS WILL
COME FROM HERE (100% Latest Already Graded A+
1. A patient is prescribed an intravenous infusion of 0.9% sodium
chloride at 125 mL/hour. The drop factor of the administration set is 15
drops/mL. What is the flow rate in drops per minute?
A) 31 gtt/min
B) 15 gtt/min
C) 125 gtt/min
D) 8 gtt/min
Answer: A) 31 gtt/min
Explanation: The formula for calculating drops per minute is (Volume in
mL × drop factor) / time in minutes. Here, (125 mL × 15 gtt/mL) / 60
minutes = = 31.25, rounded to 31 gtt/min. This ensures
accurate infusion delivery.
2. Which of the following is the most appropriate gauge of an
intravenous catheter for administering a blood transfusion to an adult
patient?
A) 14-gauge
,2|Page
B) 18-gauge
C) 22-gauge
D) 24-gauge
Answer: B) 18-gauge
Explanation: Blood transfusions require a larger gauge catheter (18-
gauge or larger) to prevent hemolysis and allow adequate flow rates.
Smaller gauges like 22 or 24 increase the risk of red blood cell damage
and sluggish flow.
3. When preparing a continuous intravenous infusion of dopamine,
which action is most critical to patient safety?
A) Verify the infusion pump settings with another licensed nurse.
B) Prime the tubing with the dopamine solution.
C) Label the infusion bag with the patient’s name and date.
D) Assess the IV site for signs of infiltration.
Answer: A) Verify the infusion pump settings with another licensed
nurse.
Explanation: Dopamine is a vasopressor with potent hemodynamic
effects. Double-checking pump settings with another licensed nurse
minimizes the risk of life-threatening dosing errors. While the other
options are appropriate, they do not address the high-alert nature of
this medication.
,3|Page
4. A patient receiving IV fluids complains of shortness of breath and has
crackles in the lung bases. The nurse notes jugular venous distention.
What is the most likely complication?
A) Anaphylactic reaction
B) Fluid volume overload
C) Air embolism
D) Catheter-related bloodstream infection
Answer: B) Fluid volume overload
Explanation: The symptoms of shortness of breath, crackles, and jugular
venous distention are classic signs of fluid volume overload or
congestive heart failure exacerbation. This occurs when IV fluids are
infused too rapidly or in excessive volume.
5. What is the primary purpose of adding a 0.22-micron filter to an
intravenous administration set?
A) To remove air bubbles from the IV line.
B) To prevent particulate matter from entering the patient’s circulation.
C) To regulate the flow rate of the infusion.
D) To reduce the risk of phlebitis.
Answer: B) To prevent particulate matter from entering the patient’s
circulation.
Explanation: A 0.22-micron filter is designed to trap bacteria, fungi, and
particulate debris. It does not remove air bubbles, regulate flow, or
directly prevent phlebitis, though reducing particulates may indirectly
lower phlebitis risk.
, 4|Page
6. Which of the following is a contraindication for the use of a
peripherally inserted central catheter?
A) Long-term antibiotic therapy
B) History of recurrent deep vein thrombosis in the upper extremity
C) Administration of total parenteral nutrition
D) Need for frequent blood sampling
Answer: B) History of recurrent deep vein thrombosis in the upper
extremity
Explanation: A history of recurrent deep vein thrombosis in the upper
extremity is a relative contraindication because PICC placement can
exacerbate thrombotic risk. The other options are common indications
for PICC use.
7. The nurse is calculating the intravenous infusion rate for a patient
requiring 1,000 mL of lactated Ringer’s over 8 hours. The administration
set delivers 20 drops/mL. What is the drip rate?
A) 42 gtt/min
B) 125 gtt/min
C) 21 gtt/min
D) 83 gtt/min
Answer: A) 42 gtt/min
Explanation: Total volume 1,000 mL over 8 hours = 125 mL/hour.
Convert to minutes: 125 mL/hour × 20 gtt/mL = 2,500 gtt/hour; divided
by 60 minutes = 41.67, rounded to 42 gtt/min.
