AGPCNP I Final Exam– 100 Questions And Correct Answers
2026/2027 -Edition 100% Pass
Overview: ✅
AGPCNP I covers Advanced Health Assessment, Diagnostic Reasoning,
Pharmacology, Labs/Imaging, Health Promotion, and common primary care disorders.
This set emphasizes physical exam, differential dx, USPSTF screening, and first-line
diagnostics. Answers bolded Green with rationales.
AGPCNP I Final – Exam Set Q1–Q100
1. 58yo M for annual exam. BP 136/84 in office, 128/78 home average. No DM/CKD.
BMI 27. What is BP classification?
A. Normal
B. Elevated BP
C. Stage 1 HTN
D. Stage 2 HTN
Rationale: ACC/AHA 2017: Elevated BP = SBP 120-129 and DBP <80. Use out-of-
office readings when available.
2. On cardiac exam, where is the PMI best palpated in a healthy adult?
A. 2nd RICS
B. 5th ICS, midclavicular line
C. Left sternal border 4th ICS
D. Epigastrium
Rationale: PMI = point of maximal impulse, LV apex. 5th ICS MCL. Lateral/displaced =
LVH or dilation.
3. 65yo F with fatigue. CBC: Hgb 10.2, MCV 82, RDW high. What test next?
A. Ferritin, TIBC, iron saturation
B. B12/folate
C. Reticulocyte count
D. Hemoglobin electrophoresis
Rationale: Normocytic anemia + high RDW suggests early iron deficiency or mixed. Iron
studies first before B12.
4. USPSTF recommends AAA screening for which group?
A. All adults ≥65
B. Men 65-75 who ever smoked
C. Women 65-75 who ever smoked
D. All adults ≥50 with HTN
Rationale: USPSTF Grade B: 1x US for men 65-75 with any smoking hx.
5. 45yo F, no family hx colon CA. When to start CRC screening per USPSTF 2021?
A. 50
B. 45
C. 40
D. 55
Rationale: USPSTF updated 2021: start average-risk at 45, not 50.
, 6. Which murmur increases with Valsalva?
A. Aortic stenosis
B. Mitral regurgitation
C. Hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy
D. Mitral stenosis
Rationale: HOCM murmur louder with decreased preload = Valsalva, standing. AS/MR
get softer.
7. 72yo M, new bilateral ankle edema. JVP 10cm, crackles at bases. What is most likely
cause?
A. Cirrhosis
B. Heart failure
C. DVT
D. Nephrotic syndrome
Rationale: Elevated JVP + pulmonary crackles + edema = CHF. Cirrhosis JVP
normal/low. Nephrotic has periorbital edema.
8. A 30yo F has fatigue, weight gain, cold intolerance. Best initial test?
A. Free T4
B. TSH
C. TPO antibodies
D. Thyroid US
Rationale: TSH is best initial test for thyroid dysfunction. High = hypothyroid, then check
FT4.
9. Which lung sound is heard in early CHF?
A. Wheezes
B. Rhonchi
C. Crackles at bases
D. Stridor
Rationale: Pulmonary edema causes fine bibasilar crackles. Wheezes = asthma/COPD.
Stridor = upper airway.
10. 55yo M, BMI 32, BP 130/82, fasting glucose 108. What is diagnosis?
A. Normal
B. Prediabetes
C. T2DM
D. Metabolic syndrome
Rationale: FPG 100-125 = prediabetes. DM ≥126. MetS needs 3/5 criteria.
11. USPSTF cervical cancer screening for 30yo F, average risk. Best interval?
A. Pap q1yr
B. Pap q3yr OR co-test q5yr
C. HPV only q5yr
D. Stop at 30
Rationale: Age 30-65: Pap q3yr OR co-test q5yr OR HPV alone q5yr.
12. 67yo F, osteoporosis, no fx. T-score -2.6. FRAX 10yr hip fx 2.5%. Treat?
A. Yes, T-score ≤-2.5
B. No, risk <3%
C. Calcium/VitD only
D. Repeat DXA 1yr
2026/2027 -Edition 100% Pass
Overview: ✅
AGPCNP I covers Advanced Health Assessment, Diagnostic Reasoning,
Pharmacology, Labs/Imaging, Health Promotion, and common primary care disorders.
This set emphasizes physical exam, differential dx, USPSTF screening, and first-line
diagnostics. Answers bolded Green with rationales.
AGPCNP I Final – Exam Set Q1–Q100
1. 58yo M for annual exam. BP 136/84 in office, 128/78 home average. No DM/CKD.
BMI 27. What is BP classification?
A. Normal
B. Elevated BP
C. Stage 1 HTN
D. Stage 2 HTN
Rationale: ACC/AHA 2017: Elevated BP = SBP 120-129 and DBP <80. Use out-of-
office readings when available.
2. On cardiac exam, where is the PMI best palpated in a healthy adult?
A. 2nd RICS
B. 5th ICS, midclavicular line
C. Left sternal border 4th ICS
D. Epigastrium
Rationale: PMI = point of maximal impulse, LV apex. 5th ICS MCL. Lateral/displaced =
LVH or dilation.
3. 65yo F with fatigue. CBC: Hgb 10.2, MCV 82, RDW high. What test next?
A. Ferritin, TIBC, iron saturation
B. B12/folate
C. Reticulocyte count
D. Hemoglobin electrophoresis
Rationale: Normocytic anemia + high RDW suggests early iron deficiency or mixed. Iron
studies first before B12.
4. USPSTF recommends AAA screening for which group?
A. All adults ≥65
B. Men 65-75 who ever smoked
C. Women 65-75 who ever smoked
D. All adults ≥50 with HTN
Rationale: USPSTF Grade B: 1x US for men 65-75 with any smoking hx.
5. 45yo F, no family hx colon CA. When to start CRC screening per USPSTF 2021?
A. 50
B. 45
C. 40
D. 55
Rationale: USPSTF updated 2021: start average-risk at 45, not 50.
, 6. Which murmur increases with Valsalva?
A. Aortic stenosis
B. Mitral regurgitation
C. Hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy
D. Mitral stenosis
Rationale: HOCM murmur louder with decreased preload = Valsalva, standing. AS/MR
get softer.
7. 72yo M, new bilateral ankle edema. JVP 10cm, crackles at bases. What is most likely
cause?
A. Cirrhosis
B. Heart failure
C. DVT
D. Nephrotic syndrome
Rationale: Elevated JVP + pulmonary crackles + edema = CHF. Cirrhosis JVP
normal/low. Nephrotic has periorbital edema.
8. A 30yo F has fatigue, weight gain, cold intolerance. Best initial test?
A. Free T4
B. TSH
C. TPO antibodies
D. Thyroid US
Rationale: TSH is best initial test for thyroid dysfunction. High = hypothyroid, then check
FT4.
9. Which lung sound is heard in early CHF?
A. Wheezes
B. Rhonchi
C. Crackles at bases
D. Stridor
Rationale: Pulmonary edema causes fine bibasilar crackles. Wheezes = asthma/COPD.
Stridor = upper airway.
10. 55yo M, BMI 32, BP 130/82, fasting glucose 108. What is diagnosis?
A. Normal
B. Prediabetes
C. T2DM
D. Metabolic syndrome
Rationale: FPG 100-125 = prediabetes. DM ≥126. MetS needs 3/5 criteria.
11. USPSTF cervical cancer screening for 30yo F, average risk. Best interval?
A. Pap q1yr
B. Pap q3yr OR co-test q5yr
C. HPV only q5yr
D. Stop at 30
Rationale: Age 30-65: Pap q3yr OR co-test q5yr OR HPV alone q5yr.
12. 67yo F, osteoporosis, no fx. T-score -2.6. FRAX 10yr hip fx 2.5%. Treat?
A. Yes, T-score ≤-2.5
B. No, risk <3%
C. Calcium/VitD only
D. Repeat DXA 1yr
