CIC COMPREHENSIVE EXAM SCRIPT COMPLETE QUESTIONS VERIFIED SOLUTIONS
CIC Practice EXAM 2026/2027 FULL Solution Script
Questions and Answers Verified Solutions Latest
Update
Question:
2 The IP receives a call from a physician who is concerned that there is an outbreak of Acinetobacter
baumannii, because he has cared for four patients in the past week who are infected with the
organism. What is the IP's first step in responding to this call? a. Contact the lab to ask them to
create an alert for any A. baumannii cases b. Contact hospital administration to request additional
resources to investigate the outbreak c. Confirm that there is an outbreak by using her own
surveillance data and lab records to compare the rates of Acinetobacter baumannii over the past year
d. Initiate a case-control study to determine risk factors for A. baumanii infection.
Answer:
c. Confirm that there is an outbreak by using her own surveillance data and lab records to compare
the rates of Acinetobacter baumannii over the past year Rationale: Confirming the presence of an
outbreak is a key first step in an outbreak investigation. Reference: APIC Text, 4th edition, Chapter
12
Question:
25. The IP receives a call from the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) with an official request for
private health information (PHI) about a patient who was admitted to the facility with botulism.
How should the IP respond to this call? a. Tell the FDA officer that she cannot share PHI with the
FDA due to Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) regulations b. Ask the
FDA to contact the local health department to obtain information about the patient c. Provide the
FDA officer with the minimum amount of information necessary related to the patient d. Transfer
the call to the Risk Management Department.
Answer:
Provide the FDA officer with the minimum amount of information necessary related to the patient,
Rationale: The FDA is a public health authority. HIPAA regulations cover disclosure to the FDA of
the minimum amount of information is. necessary to prevent or control disease. References: APIC
Text, 4th edition, Chapter 8
,Question:
26. A measles exposure from a patient in a clinic was identified and an exposure workup was
initiated. A staff exposure was defined as "nonimmune HCP with more than 5 minutes of
same-room contact or face-to-face contact with the index patient." Forty-eight HCP were identified
as possible exposures. Of these, 44 had documented immunity to measles. Of the remaining HCP,
three did not have the same room or face-to-face contact. How many HCP were at risk of
developing measles because of this exposure? a. 4 b. 45 c. 1 d. 48.
Answer:
c. 1 Rationale: Measles is a highly contagious febrile exanthern. In most immunocompetent
individuals, measles is a self-limited condition with a distinct clinical prodrome of cough, coryza,
and conjunctivitis followed by a rnorbilliform skin eruption. Measles is more severe in young,
malnourished, and immunocompromised persons. Even healthy individuals may experience
complications, however, such as otitis media, bronchopneumonia, encephalitis, and
laryngotracheobronchitis. Because measles is so highly contagious; healthcare facilities need to be
prepared to safely care for measles patients. Measles immunity (natural or vaccinated) among HCP
and use of proper isolation guidelines and postexposure protocols-need to be established to
minimize the potential for healthcare-associated transmission of measles. According to the
definition of staff exposure, only one healthcare worker was nonimmune and had more than 5
minutes of same- room contact or face-to-face contact with the index patient. Susceptible personnel
who have been exposed to an individual with measles should be furloughed (relieved from
healthcare activities) from the fifth to the 21st day after exposure, regardless of whether they
received measles vaccine or immunoglobulin after exposure or until 4 days after development of
rash. Personnel who develop measles should be furloughed until they have had their rash for 4 days.
Reference: APIC Text, 4th edition, Chapter 86
Question:
27. Which of the following recommendations related to disinfection and sterilization in healthcare
facilities is a CDC category 1A recommendation? 1) Before use on each patient, sterilize critical
medical and surgical devices and instruments that enter normally sterile tissue or the vascular
system or through which a sterile body fluid flows" 2) Meticulously clean patient-care items with
water and detergent, or with water and enzymatic cleaners before high-level disinfection or
sterilization procedures. 3) In hospitals, perform most cleaning, disinfection, and sterilization of
patient-care devices in a central processing department in order to more easily control quality. 4)
Perform low-level disinfection for noncritical patient-care surfaces (e.g., bedrails, over-the-bed
table) and equipment (e.g., blood pressure cuff) that touch intact skin a. 1 b. 1,3 c. 1, 2, 4 d. 1, 2, 3,
4.
Answer:
,a. 1 Rationale: The CDC has established a system for cataloging recommendations based on the
amount of data available to support the recommendation: Category 1A recommendations are
strongly, supported by epidemiologic, clinical data, or experimental data from well-designed
studies. Sterilization of medical instruments that will come into contact with sterile tissue or the
vascular system is a Category 1A recommendation._ Reference: CDC Guideline for Disinfection
and Sterilization in Healthcare Facilities, 2008 Page: 83-84
Question:
28. Vaginal probes with probe covers require which type of disinfection: a. Low-level disinfection
b. Intermediate-level disinfection c. High-level disinfection d. Sterilization.
Answer:
c. High-level disinfection Rationale: Vaginal probes are used in sonographic scanning. A vaginal
probe and all endocavitary probes without a probe cover are semicritical devices because they have
direct contact with mucous membranes. It is recommended that a new condom/probe cover should
be used to cover the probe for each patient and, because condoms/probe covers may fail, high-level
disinfection of the probe should also be performed. These medical devices should be free of all
vegetative microorganisms (i.e., mycobacteria, fungi, viruses, bacteria), though small numbers of
bacterial spores may be present. Reference: Chapter 31
Question:
29. The IP is reviewing the facility's performance measures, which are used to benchmark against
national data. The IP ensures that each performance measure includes which of the following
characteristics: 1) Measure is reliable 2) Measure targets improvement in a health population 3)
Measure is defined according to physician preference 4) Measure can be easily interpreted by the
users of the data a. 1, 2, 3 b. 1, 2, 4 c. 2, 3, 4 d. 1, 3, 4.
Answer:
1, 2, 4 Rationale: Performance measures focus on outcomes or processes. They are used for internal
improvement purposes, intra- or inter- organizational comparisons, and by various external entities
for making decisions about care. Performance measure should be designed to address improvement
that is likely to have a significant impact to the health of a specified population. The measure should
consistently track the events within an organization or across organizations and over time. The
resulting data should be easily understood by the end-users (e.g., staff, facility leaders). Reference:
Chapter 17
, Question:
30. A preliminary microbiology report states that a patient's bloodculture grew aerobic,
Gram-negative bacilli. Which of the following is the most likely genus and species of the organism:
a. Enterococcus faecalis b. Bacteroides fragilis c. Acinetobacter baumanii d. Neisseria meningitides.
Answer:
Acinetobacter baumanii Rationale: Acinetobacter baumannii is a aerobic, Gram-negative rod
(coccobacillus). It can be an opportunistic pathogen in humans, affecting people with compromised
immune systems and is becoming increasingly important as an HAI. It has also been isolated from
soil and water samples in the environment. Reference: APIC Text, 4th edition, Chapter 77
Question:
Describe Neisseria meningitides?
Answer:
Gram negative cocci which is normal flora of the oropharyngeal
Question:
Describe Bacteroides fragilis?
Answer:
Anaerobic gram negative rod which is normal flora of the oral cavity and GI and genital tracts.
Question:
Describe Enterococcus faecalis?
Answer:
Gram positive cocci, commensal bacterium of GI tract. Formerly classified as part of the group D
Streptococcus system.
Question:
31. Urinary tract infections in the postpartum period have three important risk factors. Which of the
following is not one of them: a. Induction of labor b. Tocolysis c. Cesarean delivery d. Twin births.
CIC Practice EXAM 2026/2027 FULL Solution Script
Questions and Answers Verified Solutions Latest
Update
Question:
2 The IP receives a call from a physician who is concerned that there is an outbreak of Acinetobacter
baumannii, because he has cared for four patients in the past week who are infected with the
organism. What is the IP's first step in responding to this call? a. Contact the lab to ask them to
create an alert for any A. baumannii cases b. Contact hospital administration to request additional
resources to investigate the outbreak c. Confirm that there is an outbreak by using her own
surveillance data and lab records to compare the rates of Acinetobacter baumannii over the past year
d. Initiate a case-control study to determine risk factors for A. baumanii infection.
Answer:
c. Confirm that there is an outbreak by using her own surveillance data and lab records to compare
the rates of Acinetobacter baumannii over the past year Rationale: Confirming the presence of an
outbreak is a key first step in an outbreak investigation. Reference: APIC Text, 4th edition, Chapter
12
Question:
25. The IP receives a call from the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) with an official request for
private health information (PHI) about a patient who was admitted to the facility with botulism.
How should the IP respond to this call? a. Tell the FDA officer that she cannot share PHI with the
FDA due to Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) regulations b. Ask the
FDA to contact the local health department to obtain information about the patient c. Provide the
FDA officer with the minimum amount of information necessary related to the patient d. Transfer
the call to the Risk Management Department.
Answer:
Provide the FDA officer with the minimum amount of information necessary related to the patient,
Rationale: The FDA is a public health authority. HIPAA regulations cover disclosure to the FDA of
the minimum amount of information is. necessary to prevent or control disease. References: APIC
Text, 4th edition, Chapter 8
,Question:
26. A measles exposure from a patient in a clinic was identified and an exposure workup was
initiated. A staff exposure was defined as "nonimmune HCP with more than 5 minutes of
same-room contact or face-to-face contact with the index patient." Forty-eight HCP were identified
as possible exposures. Of these, 44 had documented immunity to measles. Of the remaining HCP,
three did not have the same room or face-to-face contact. How many HCP were at risk of
developing measles because of this exposure? a. 4 b. 45 c. 1 d. 48.
Answer:
c. 1 Rationale: Measles is a highly contagious febrile exanthern. In most immunocompetent
individuals, measles is a self-limited condition with a distinct clinical prodrome of cough, coryza,
and conjunctivitis followed by a rnorbilliform skin eruption. Measles is more severe in young,
malnourished, and immunocompromised persons. Even healthy individuals may experience
complications, however, such as otitis media, bronchopneumonia, encephalitis, and
laryngotracheobronchitis. Because measles is so highly contagious; healthcare facilities need to be
prepared to safely care for measles patients. Measles immunity (natural or vaccinated) among HCP
and use of proper isolation guidelines and postexposure protocols-need to be established to
minimize the potential for healthcare-associated transmission of measles. According to the
definition of staff exposure, only one healthcare worker was nonimmune and had more than 5
minutes of same- room contact or face-to-face contact with the index patient. Susceptible personnel
who have been exposed to an individual with measles should be furloughed (relieved from
healthcare activities) from the fifth to the 21st day after exposure, regardless of whether they
received measles vaccine or immunoglobulin after exposure or until 4 days after development of
rash. Personnel who develop measles should be furloughed until they have had their rash for 4 days.
Reference: APIC Text, 4th edition, Chapter 86
Question:
27. Which of the following recommendations related to disinfection and sterilization in healthcare
facilities is a CDC category 1A recommendation? 1) Before use on each patient, sterilize critical
medical and surgical devices and instruments that enter normally sterile tissue or the vascular
system or through which a sterile body fluid flows" 2) Meticulously clean patient-care items with
water and detergent, or with water and enzymatic cleaners before high-level disinfection or
sterilization procedures. 3) In hospitals, perform most cleaning, disinfection, and sterilization of
patient-care devices in a central processing department in order to more easily control quality. 4)
Perform low-level disinfection for noncritical patient-care surfaces (e.g., bedrails, over-the-bed
table) and equipment (e.g., blood pressure cuff) that touch intact skin a. 1 b. 1,3 c. 1, 2, 4 d. 1, 2, 3,
4.
Answer:
,a. 1 Rationale: The CDC has established a system for cataloging recommendations based on the
amount of data available to support the recommendation: Category 1A recommendations are
strongly, supported by epidemiologic, clinical data, or experimental data from well-designed
studies. Sterilization of medical instruments that will come into contact with sterile tissue or the
vascular system is a Category 1A recommendation._ Reference: CDC Guideline for Disinfection
and Sterilization in Healthcare Facilities, 2008 Page: 83-84
Question:
28. Vaginal probes with probe covers require which type of disinfection: a. Low-level disinfection
b. Intermediate-level disinfection c. High-level disinfection d. Sterilization.
Answer:
c. High-level disinfection Rationale: Vaginal probes are used in sonographic scanning. A vaginal
probe and all endocavitary probes without a probe cover are semicritical devices because they have
direct contact with mucous membranes. It is recommended that a new condom/probe cover should
be used to cover the probe for each patient and, because condoms/probe covers may fail, high-level
disinfection of the probe should also be performed. These medical devices should be free of all
vegetative microorganisms (i.e., mycobacteria, fungi, viruses, bacteria), though small numbers of
bacterial spores may be present. Reference: Chapter 31
Question:
29. The IP is reviewing the facility's performance measures, which are used to benchmark against
national data. The IP ensures that each performance measure includes which of the following
characteristics: 1) Measure is reliable 2) Measure targets improvement in a health population 3)
Measure is defined according to physician preference 4) Measure can be easily interpreted by the
users of the data a. 1, 2, 3 b. 1, 2, 4 c. 2, 3, 4 d. 1, 3, 4.
Answer:
1, 2, 4 Rationale: Performance measures focus on outcomes or processes. They are used for internal
improvement purposes, intra- or inter- organizational comparisons, and by various external entities
for making decisions about care. Performance measure should be designed to address improvement
that is likely to have a significant impact to the health of a specified population. The measure should
consistently track the events within an organization or across organizations and over time. The
resulting data should be easily understood by the end-users (e.g., staff, facility leaders). Reference:
Chapter 17
, Question:
30. A preliminary microbiology report states that a patient's bloodculture grew aerobic,
Gram-negative bacilli. Which of the following is the most likely genus and species of the organism:
a. Enterococcus faecalis b. Bacteroides fragilis c. Acinetobacter baumanii d. Neisseria meningitides.
Answer:
Acinetobacter baumanii Rationale: Acinetobacter baumannii is a aerobic, Gram-negative rod
(coccobacillus). It can be an opportunistic pathogen in humans, affecting people with compromised
immune systems and is becoming increasingly important as an HAI. It has also been isolated from
soil and water samples in the environment. Reference: APIC Text, 4th edition, Chapter 77
Question:
Describe Neisseria meningitides?
Answer:
Gram negative cocci which is normal flora of the oropharyngeal
Question:
Describe Bacteroides fragilis?
Answer:
Anaerobic gram negative rod which is normal flora of the oral cavity and GI and genital tracts.
Question:
Describe Enterococcus faecalis?
Answer:
Gram positive cocci, commensal bacterium of GI tract. Formerly classified as part of the group D
Streptococcus system.
Question:
31. Urinary tract infections in the postpartum period have three important risk factors. Which of the
following is not one of them: a. Induction of labor b. Tocolysis c. Cesarean delivery d. Twin births.
