NUR 155 EXAM 300 ACTUAL QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS
WITH RATIONALE LATEST UPDATE ALREADY GRADED A+
The NUR 155 exam is the comprehensive final assessment for Galen College
of Nursing's Foundations of Nursing course. This high-stakes examination
evaluates students' mastery of fundamental nursing concepts including the
nursing process (ADPIE), infection control protocols, medication
administration, safety interventions, mobility assistance, and basic patient
assessment skills. The exam features multiple-choice, select-all-that-apply, and
scenario-based questions that test clinical judgment and critical thinking.
Students must demonstrate proficiency in fluid and electrolyte balance,
wound care, vital signs interpretation, legal and ethical considerations, and
therapeutic communication. Success requires integrating theoretical
knowledge with practical application across the entire course curriculum.
Question 1
The nurse is teaching an adult female client about health promotion. Which of the
following should the nurse recommend as a primary prevention intervention?
A. Performing a breast self-examination
B. Having a yearly physical with labs
C. Receiving family planning services
D. Checking blood pressure every 3 months
Answer: C. Receiving family planning services
Rationale: Primary prevention is aimed at preventing a problem before it occurs.
Family planning services help prevent unintended pregnancies, which is a primary
prevention strategy.
Question 2
The nurse is caring for a client who has joint pain. The nurse incorporates the
nutritional status, sleep patterns, energy level, and sense of well-being into the plan
of care. Which concept is the nurse practicing?
A. Homeostasis
B. Individuality
C. Health promotion
D. Holism
Answer: D. Holism
,Rationale: Holism in nursing considers the whole person, including physical,
psychological, social, and spiritual well-being. The nurse is addressing the clients
complete state, not just their physical joint pain.
Question 3
The community health nurse is preparing to provide education to an adolescent
client regarding health promotion. Which health promotion topic is most
appropriate for this client?
A. Dental checkups
B. Preventive health screenings
C. Weight control
D. Peer group influences
Answer: D. Peer group influences
Rationale: For adolescents, peer group influences are a major factor in health
behaviors such as substance use, nutrition, and activity levels. Addressing this is
key to effective health promotion for this age group.
Question 4
The nurse is caring for a client who has a low serum albumin level. Which
statement by the nurse indicates a correct understanding of albumin levels?
A. The client is experiencing a rapid breakdown of protein
B. This indicates a low level of iron circulating in the blood
C. The results indicate prolonged malnutrition
D. This indicates that the client has experienced blood loss
Answer: C. The results indicate prolonged malnutrition
Rationale: Albumin is a protein made by the liver. Low serum albumin is often a
sign of chronic malnutrition or a chronic disease state, as it reflects the bodys
protein reserves over a long period.
Question 5
The nurse is preparing to discharge an elderly client who is at risk for aspiration.
Which recommendation should the nurse make?
A. Prepare liquids at prescribed consistency
B. Tilt the head back when swallowing
C. Drink warm water instead of cold
D. Use extra pillow when eating in bed
Answer: A. Prepare liquids at prescribed consistency
Rationale: Clients at risk for aspiration often need thickened liquids to prevent the
fluids from entering the airway. The consistency should be prepared as prescribed
by a speech therapist or physician.
,Question 6
The nurse is caring for a client with a peripheral intravenous line. The client
complains of pain and the site is swollen and cool. What is the nurses priority
action?
A. Slow the infusion rate
B. Stop the infusion and start supportive treatment
C. Apply a warm compress
D. Elevate the arm
Answer: B. Stop the infusion and start supportive treatment
Rationale: A swollen, cool IV site indicates infiltration, where IV fluid has leaked
into the surrounding tissue. The nurses priority is to stop the infusion immediately
to prevent further tissue damage.
Question 7
The nurse is caring for a client who was admitted with a decreased phosphorus
level. Which recommendation should the nurse make?
A. Enforce strict isolation protocols
B. Strain all urine
C. Encourage consumption of a high-calorie carbohydrate diet
D. Encourage consumption of milk and yogurt
Answer: D. Encourage consumption of milk and yogurt
Rationale: Hypophosphatemia is treated by increasing dietary phosphorus. Dairy
products like milk and yogurt are excellent sources of phosphorus.
Question 8
The nurse is caring for a client who is 5 days postoperative and has been on bed
rest. Which intervention should the nurse implement to decrease the clients
possibility of developing hypercalcemia?
A. Assist the client with ambulation
B. Encourage a high-calcium diet
C. Provide calcium supplements
D. Restrict fluid intake
Answer: A. Assist the client with ambulation
Rationale: Prolonged immobility causes bones to release calcium into the
bloodstream, leading to hypercalcemia. Weight-bearing activities like ambulation
stimulate bone formation and decrease bone resorption.
Question 9
, The nurse is instructing a client on how to collect a midstream urine specimen.
Which step is most important?
A. Cleanse the urinary meatus from back to front
B. Void a small amount into the toilet, then collect the sample
C. Collect the first urine of the morning
D. Refrigerate the sample immediately
Answer: B. Void a small amount into the toilet, then collect the sample
Rationale: The midstream technique requires the client to start urinating, stop, and
then collect the urine. This flushes away contaminants from the urethral opening.
Question 10
The nurse is reviewing lab results and notes that a clients potassium level is 3.2
mEq/L. Which action does the nurse anticipate?
A. IV fluids with potassium chloride
B. A low-potassium diet
C. IV fluids with sodium chloride
D. A potassium-restricted diet
Answer: A. IV fluids with potassium chloride
Rationale: A normal potassium level is 3.5-5.0 mEq/L. A level of 3.2 mEq/L
indicates hypokalemia. Potassium chloride IV is the standard treatment for severe
hypokalemia.
Question 11
The nurse is calculating a clients intake and output. Which of the following would
the nurse count as fluid output? (Select all that apply.)
A. Urine
B. Liquid stools
C. Emesis
D. Wound drainage
Answer: A, B, C, D. All options
Rationale: Fluid output includes urine, liquid stools, emesis, and wound drainage.
These measurable losses are all counted when calculating a patients fluid balance.
Question 12
A client has a serum sodium level of 118 mEq/L. Which of the following
symptoms would the nurse expect to find?
A. Thirst and dry mucous membranes
B. Muscle cramps and twitching
C. Confusion and headache
D. Hypertension and tachycardia
WITH RATIONALE LATEST UPDATE ALREADY GRADED A+
The NUR 155 exam is the comprehensive final assessment for Galen College
of Nursing's Foundations of Nursing course. This high-stakes examination
evaluates students' mastery of fundamental nursing concepts including the
nursing process (ADPIE), infection control protocols, medication
administration, safety interventions, mobility assistance, and basic patient
assessment skills. The exam features multiple-choice, select-all-that-apply, and
scenario-based questions that test clinical judgment and critical thinking.
Students must demonstrate proficiency in fluid and electrolyte balance,
wound care, vital signs interpretation, legal and ethical considerations, and
therapeutic communication. Success requires integrating theoretical
knowledge with practical application across the entire course curriculum.
Question 1
The nurse is teaching an adult female client about health promotion. Which of the
following should the nurse recommend as a primary prevention intervention?
A. Performing a breast self-examination
B. Having a yearly physical with labs
C. Receiving family planning services
D. Checking blood pressure every 3 months
Answer: C. Receiving family planning services
Rationale: Primary prevention is aimed at preventing a problem before it occurs.
Family planning services help prevent unintended pregnancies, which is a primary
prevention strategy.
Question 2
The nurse is caring for a client who has joint pain. The nurse incorporates the
nutritional status, sleep patterns, energy level, and sense of well-being into the plan
of care. Which concept is the nurse practicing?
A. Homeostasis
B. Individuality
C. Health promotion
D. Holism
Answer: D. Holism
,Rationale: Holism in nursing considers the whole person, including physical,
psychological, social, and spiritual well-being. The nurse is addressing the clients
complete state, not just their physical joint pain.
Question 3
The community health nurse is preparing to provide education to an adolescent
client regarding health promotion. Which health promotion topic is most
appropriate for this client?
A. Dental checkups
B. Preventive health screenings
C. Weight control
D. Peer group influences
Answer: D. Peer group influences
Rationale: For adolescents, peer group influences are a major factor in health
behaviors such as substance use, nutrition, and activity levels. Addressing this is
key to effective health promotion for this age group.
Question 4
The nurse is caring for a client who has a low serum albumin level. Which
statement by the nurse indicates a correct understanding of albumin levels?
A. The client is experiencing a rapid breakdown of protein
B. This indicates a low level of iron circulating in the blood
C. The results indicate prolonged malnutrition
D. This indicates that the client has experienced blood loss
Answer: C. The results indicate prolonged malnutrition
Rationale: Albumin is a protein made by the liver. Low serum albumin is often a
sign of chronic malnutrition or a chronic disease state, as it reflects the bodys
protein reserves over a long period.
Question 5
The nurse is preparing to discharge an elderly client who is at risk for aspiration.
Which recommendation should the nurse make?
A. Prepare liquids at prescribed consistency
B. Tilt the head back when swallowing
C. Drink warm water instead of cold
D. Use extra pillow when eating in bed
Answer: A. Prepare liquids at prescribed consistency
Rationale: Clients at risk for aspiration often need thickened liquids to prevent the
fluids from entering the airway. The consistency should be prepared as prescribed
by a speech therapist or physician.
,Question 6
The nurse is caring for a client with a peripheral intravenous line. The client
complains of pain and the site is swollen and cool. What is the nurses priority
action?
A. Slow the infusion rate
B. Stop the infusion and start supportive treatment
C. Apply a warm compress
D. Elevate the arm
Answer: B. Stop the infusion and start supportive treatment
Rationale: A swollen, cool IV site indicates infiltration, where IV fluid has leaked
into the surrounding tissue. The nurses priority is to stop the infusion immediately
to prevent further tissue damage.
Question 7
The nurse is caring for a client who was admitted with a decreased phosphorus
level. Which recommendation should the nurse make?
A. Enforce strict isolation protocols
B. Strain all urine
C. Encourage consumption of a high-calorie carbohydrate diet
D. Encourage consumption of milk and yogurt
Answer: D. Encourage consumption of milk and yogurt
Rationale: Hypophosphatemia is treated by increasing dietary phosphorus. Dairy
products like milk and yogurt are excellent sources of phosphorus.
Question 8
The nurse is caring for a client who is 5 days postoperative and has been on bed
rest. Which intervention should the nurse implement to decrease the clients
possibility of developing hypercalcemia?
A. Assist the client with ambulation
B. Encourage a high-calcium diet
C. Provide calcium supplements
D. Restrict fluid intake
Answer: A. Assist the client with ambulation
Rationale: Prolonged immobility causes bones to release calcium into the
bloodstream, leading to hypercalcemia. Weight-bearing activities like ambulation
stimulate bone formation and decrease bone resorption.
Question 9
, The nurse is instructing a client on how to collect a midstream urine specimen.
Which step is most important?
A. Cleanse the urinary meatus from back to front
B. Void a small amount into the toilet, then collect the sample
C. Collect the first urine of the morning
D. Refrigerate the sample immediately
Answer: B. Void a small amount into the toilet, then collect the sample
Rationale: The midstream technique requires the client to start urinating, stop, and
then collect the urine. This flushes away contaminants from the urethral opening.
Question 10
The nurse is reviewing lab results and notes that a clients potassium level is 3.2
mEq/L. Which action does the nurse anticipate?
A. IV fluids with potassium chloride
B. A low-potassium diet
C. IV fluids with sodium chloride
D. A potassium-restricted diet
Answer: A. IV fluids with potassium chloride
Rationale: A normal potassium level is 3.5-5.0 mEq/L. A level of 3.2 mEq/L
indicates hypokalemia. Potassium chloride IV is the standard treatment for severe
hypokalemia.
Question 11
The nurse is calculating a clients intake and output. Which of the following would
the nurse count as fluid output? (Select all that apply.)
A. Urine
B. Liquid stools
C. Emesis
D. Wound drainage
Answer: A, B, C, D. All options
Rationale: Fluid output includes urine, liquid stools, emesis, and wound drainage.
These measurable losses are all counted when calculating a patients fluid balance.
Question 12
A client has a serum sodium level of 118 mEq/L. Which of the following
symptoms would the nurse expect to find?
A. Thirst and dry mucous membranes
B. Muscle cramps and twitching
C. Confusion and headache
D. Hypertension and tachycardia
