WGU D443
Objective Assessment
(3 Full Exams Set)
(Health Assessment)
Actual Questions with Verified Answers
Pass the Exam with Confidence
What You Will Get:
➢180 Questions with correct answers.
➢Expert Rationales included.
➢300+ OA Study Guide Questions
, Preview Pages Below
Get the Complete PDF After Purchase
"If you require further clarification or in need of any study resources,
feel free to Message me."
Digital preview sample
,Contents
WGU D443 OA EXAM SET 1 .............................................................. 2
WGU D443 OA EXAM SET 2 ............................................................ 28
WGU D443 OA EXAM SET 3 ............................................................ 64
WGU D443 OA EXAM STUDY GUIDE .............................................. 90
WGU D443 OA EXAM SET 1
1. Heart sounds are loudest for S1 at the _______ and for S2 at the _______.
A. Base of the heart / Apex of the heart
B. Right side of the heart / Left side of the heart
C. Center of the heart / Base of the heart
D. Apex of the heart / Base of the heart
Correct Answer: D. Apex of the heart / Base of the heart
Rationale: S1 (the first heart sound, "lub") is produced by closure of the mitral and
tricuspid valves and is best heard at the apex of the heart (5th intercostal space,
midclavicular line). S2 (the second heart sound, "dub") is produced by closure of the
aortic and pulmonic valves and is best heard at the base of the heart (2nd intercostal
spaces). The apex is the point of maximal impulse (PMI) where S1 is most intense,
while the base at the right and left 2nd intercostal spaces provides optimal auscultation
for S2.
2. When preparing a female client for an abdominal examination, the nurse should
provide her with which instruction?
A. Empty your bladder just prior to the examination
B. Refrain from eating or drinking for at least thirty minutes
C. Lie in a prone position with slightly flexed knees
D. Exhale slowly through your mouth then hold your breath
Correct Answer: A. Empty your bladder just prior to the examination
,Rationale: An empty bladder is essential for an accurate abdominal examination
because a full bladder elevates the uterus and can obscure palpation of abdominal
organs, potentially leading to misinterpretation of findings such as organomegaly or
masses. The supine position (not prone) with knees flexed is the standard positioning
for abdominal assessment, as it relaxes the abdominal wall muscles.
3. The nurse learns in report that a client is stuporous. Which assessment should
the nurse perform to confirm this report?
A. Observe for facial asymmetry
B. Determine the response to stimuli
C. Assess for a positive Romberg sign
D. Check the pupillary response to light
Correct Answer: B. Determine the response to stimuli
Rationale: Stupor is a level of consciousness characterized by deep sleep or
unresponsiveness from which the client can only be aroused by vigorous and repeated
stimulation. The defining characteristic of stupor is the client's response to external
stimuli—specifically, requiring strong, persistent stimuli to elicit any response. To confirm
stupor, the nurse must apply graduated stimuli (verbal, tactile, painful) and document
the type of stimulus required and the quality of response obtained.
4. The nurse begins a client's musculoskeletal assessment. While using the
technique of inspection, the nurse assesses for which possible findings? Select
all that apply.
A. Atrophy
B. Crepitus
C. Kyphosis
D. Osteopenia
E. Contracture
Correct Answer: A, C, E
Rationale: Inspection is the first technique in musculoskeletal assessment and involves
visual observation of the body for symmetry, alignment, contour, and gross
abnormalities. Atrophy (A) is visible muscle wasting. Kyphosis (C) is an exaggerated
posterior curvature of the thoracic spine that is visually apparent. Contracture (E) is a
permanent shortening of a muscle or joint that results in visible deformity. Crepitus (B) is
, WGU D443 OA EXAM SET 2
1. A college student sees the nurse because she has missed her last two
menstrual periods. She reports she has not had sexual intercourse in one month.
The nurse requests a pregnancy test, which is negative. Based on this client's
history, which assessment is most important for the nurse to obtain?
A. A detailed menstrual history and any changes in lifestyle or stress levels
B. Body weight
C. Hirsutism
D. Thyroid enlargement
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: While body weight, hirsutism, and thyroid enlargement are all relevant
assessments for secondary amenorrhea, the most important initial assessment is
obtaining a detailed menstrual history and evaluating lifestyle factors such as stress,
exercise patterns, and nutritional status. Secondary amenorrhea (absence of menses
for 3+ cycles or 6+ months in a previously menstruating female) can result from
hypothalamic dysfunction due to stress, excessive exercise, or low body weight. A
comprehensive menstrual history establishes the baseline for further diagnostic workup.
Pregnancy must always be ruled out first, which was done. Weight changes, hirsutism,
and thyroid assessment would follow based on the menstrual history findings.
2. Which question by the nurse is likely to elicit the most information regarding a
client's use of medications to treat a chronic cough?
A. "What medications are you currently taking?"
B. "What medications have you taken for your cough?"
C. "Have you tried any generic brands of cough syrup?"
D. "Have you been prescribed any medications for your cough?"
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Option B is the most effective therapeutic communication technique
because it is open-ended and focused specifically on the client's cough treatment.
Option A is too broad and may not capture cough-specific medications. Option C is
,closed-ended and limits the response to generic brands only. Option D restricts the
answer to prescribed medications, missing over-the-counter (OTC) remedies, herbal
supplements, or home remedies the client may be using. Effective health history taking
requires open-ended, focused questions that encourage the client to provide
comprehensive information about self-treatment behaviors.
3. To complete the sentence, heart sounds are loudest for S1 at the ________.
A. Left side of the heart
B. Right side of the heart
C. Apex of the heart
D. Center, base of the heart
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: S1 (the first heart sound, "lub") is produced by closure of the mitral and
tricuspid (atrioventricular) valves and is best heard at the apex of the heart —
specifically at the 5th intercostal space, left midclavicular line (the mitral area, or M
point). S2 (the second heart sound, "dub") is produced by closure of the aortic and
pulmonic (semilunar) valves and is loudest at the base of the heart. Understanding the
anatomical locations of heart sounds is essential for accurate cardiac assessment and
identification of murmurs or extra heart sounds.
4. An older adult client comes to the healthcare provider's office for a routine
follow-up exam for high blood pressure, osteoarthritis, constipation, and chronic
sinusitis. The client recently had a cataract removed from the left eye. Which
action is most important for the nurse to address when obtaining this client's
health history?
A. Emphasize the need to place advanced directives in the medical record.
B. Complete an assessment of functional capacity and environmental hazards.
C. Distinguish between symptoms caused by disease and those due to aging.
D. Obtain a medication history including prescription and non-prescription drugs.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The client has multiple chronic conditions (hypertension, osteoarthritis,
constipation, chronic sinusitis) and recent cataract surgery, indicating polypharmacy
risk. Obtaining a comprehensive medication history — including prescription drugs,
OTC medications, herbal supplements, and vitamins — is the priority because drug
interactions, duplications, and adverse effects are common in older adults with multiple
, WGU D443 OA EXAM SET 3
1. A client is in the clinic and is reporting lower abdominal pain and constipation.
Which information is of greatest concern to the nurse when obtaining the health
history from this client?
A. Family history of irritable bowel syndrome on the father's side
B. Family history of colon cancer on mother's side
C. Client reports increased fiber intake in the past month
D. Client has been taking over-the-counter laxatives daily
Correct Answer: B. Family history of colon cancer on mother's side
Rationale: A family history of colon cancer, particularly on the mother's side (first-
degree relative), significantly increases the client's risk for colorectal malignancy. Lower
abdominal pain and constipation in a client with a positive family history of colon cancer
are red flag symptoms that require immediate further investigation, including
colonoscopy. The nurse must prioritize this information and ensure the healthcare
provider is aware of both the symptoms and the family history to determine appropriate
diagnostic testing. While laxative overuse (D) and IBS history (A) are relevant, they do
not carry the same mortality risk as potential malignancy.
2. A client states that she had a mastectomy of her left breast last year and now
experiences lymphedema. What should the nurse expect to find when examining
the client?
A. Swelling of the right arm and pitting edema
B. Swelling of the left arm and non-pitting edema
C. Swelling of both arms with pitting edema
D. Swelling of the left arm with erythema and warmth
Correct Answer: B. Swelling of the left arm and non-pitting edema
Rationale: Lymphedema following mastectomy occurs because axillary lymph node
dissection disrupts lymphatic drainage from the ipsilateral (same-side) upper extremity.
The affected arm (left, in this case) develops non-pitting edema because the excess
fluid is protein-rich lymph that accumulates in the interstitial spaces and causes tissue
fibrosis over time. Unlike venous edema, lymphedema does not pit because the protein
content creates tissue changes. The nurse should assess arm circumference, skin
,integrity, and range of motion, and educate the client on lymphedema precautions
including avoiding blood pressure measurements, injections, and venipuncture in the
affected arm.
3. A client is in the clinic for a yearly physical examination. The nurse is preparing
to perform a focused assessment. Which action should the nurse take when
preparing to examine the client's abdomen?
A. Ask the client to urinate before beginning the examination
B. Instruct the client to fast for 8 hours prior to the exam
C. Position the client in the left lateral decubitus position
D. Administer a bowel preparation solution the evening before
Correct Answer: A. Ask the client to urinate before beginning the examination
Rationale: An empty bladder is essential for accurate abdominal assessment because
a full bladder elevates the uterus (in females) and can obscure palpation of abdominal
organs, potentially leading to misinterpretation of findings such as organomegaly,
masses, or tenderness. The supine position with knees flexed is standard for abdominal
examination. Fasting (B) and bowel prep (D) are not required for a routine physical
examination. The left lateral decubitus position (C) is used for splenic percussion, not as
the initial position for general abdominal assessment.
4. The nurse is assessing for the presence of a hernia. Which action should the
nurse ask the client to perform while lying supine?
A. Use abdominal muscles to sit up
B. Perform the Valsalva maneuver while holding breath
C. Extend both legs straight and lift them 6 inches off the bed
D. Turn onto the left side and draw knees to the chest
Correct Answer: A. Use abdominal muscles to sit up
Rationale: To assess for an abdominal hernia, the nurse asks the client to perform a sit-
up or bear down (increase intra-abdominal pressure) while observing for any bulging at
the umbilicus, inguinal area, or prior surgical incision sites. The sit-up maneuver
increases intra-abdominal pressure, which will cause a hernia to become more
prominent if present. The Valsalva maneuver (B) is used during cardiac auscultation for
murmurs. Leg lifts (C) assess lower abdominal muscle strength. The left lateral position
(D) is used for rectal examination.
, WGU D443 OA EXAM STUDY GUIDE
1. What does the inspection component of physical assessment involve?
Using sight to assess size, shape, color, and symmetry.
2. What does the palpation component of physical assessment involve?
Using touch to assess temperature, vibration, texture, tenderness, and size. Using
dorsal surface of hand for temperature and palmar surface for vibration. Assess tender
areas last.
3. What does the percussion component of physical assessment involve?
Tapping body parts to assess location, size, shape, and tissue density.
4. What does the auscultation component of physical assessment involve?
Listening for sounds and assessing volume, intensity, duration, frequency, and quality.
5. What is the typical order of most physical assessments?
Inspect, palpate, percuss, auscultate.
6. What is the order of abdominal assessment to avoid altering bowel sounds?
Inspect, auscultate, percuss, palpate. Mnemonic: I Am Perfect, Pal!
7. What are the Physical Assessment Steps?
, 1. Introductory explanation, hand hygiene, etc.
2. General Survey
3. Vital Signs
4. Pain assessment
5. Skin Assessment
6. Head, neck, eyes, ears, nose, mouth/throat assessment
7. Anterior and Posterior chest assessment
8. Abdominal Assessment
9. Musculoskeletal Assessment
10. Neurologic assessment
11. Closing remarks and safety checks
8. What is the first step when beginning an assessment?
Perform hand hygiene.
9. Why is it important to make your presence known when starting an
assessment?
To respect the patient's privacy, knock on the door.
10. What should you do after making your presence known during an
assessment?
Introduce yourself and state your job title (e.g. nurse, tech, nursing student).
11. How can you ensure patient privacy during an assessment?
Provide for privacy.
12. What information should you communicate to the patient at the beginning of
an assessment?
Objective Assessment
(3 Full Exams Set)
(Health Assessment)
Actual Questions with Verified Answers
Pass the Exam with Confidence
What You Will Get:
➢180 Questions with correct answers.
➢Expert Rationales included.
➢300+ OA Study Guide Questions
, Preview Pages Below
Get the Complete PDF After Purchase
"If you require further clarification or in need of any study resources,
feel free to Message me."
Digital preview sample
,Contents
WGU D443 OA EXAM SET 1 .............................................................. 2
WGU D443 OA EXAM SET 2 ............................................................ 28
WGU D443 OA EXAM SET 3 ............................................................ 64
WGU D443 OA EXAM STUDY GUIDE .............................................. 90
WGU D443 OA EXAM SET 1
1. Heart sounds are loudest for S1 at the _______ and for S2 at the _______.
A. Base of the heart / Apex of the heart
B. Right side of the heart / Left side of the heart
C. Center of the heart / Base of the heart
D. Apex of the heart / Base of the heart
Correct Answer: D. Apex of the heart / Base of the heart
Rationale: S1 (the first heart sound, "lub") is produced by closure of the mitral and
tricuspid valves and is best heard at the apex of the heart (5th intercostal space,
midclavicular line). S2 (the second heart sound, "dub") is produced by closure of the
aortic and pulmonic valves and is best heard at the base of the heart (2nd intercostal
spaces). The apex is the point of maximal impulse (PMI) where S1 is most intense,
while the base at the right and left 2nd intercostal spaces provides optimal auscultation
for S2.
2. When preparing a female client for an abdominal examination, the nurse should
provide her with which instruction?
A. Empty your bladder just prior to the examination
B. Refrain from eating or drinking for at least thirty minutes
C. Lie in a prone position with slightly flexed knees
D. Exhale slowly through your mouth then hold your breath
Correct Answer: A. Empty your bladder just prior to the examination
,Rationale: An empty bladder is essential for an accurate abdominal examination
because a full bladder elevates the uterus and can obscure palpation of abdominal
organs, potentially leading to misinterpretation of findings such as organomegaly or
masses. The supine position (not prone) with knees flexed is the standard positioning
for abdominal assessment, as it relaxes the abdominal wall muscles.
3. The nurse learns in report that a client is stuporous. Which assessment should
the nurse perform to confirm this report?
A. Observe for facial asymmetry
B. Determine the response to stimuli
C. Assess for a positive Romberg sign
D. Check the pupillary response to light
Correct Answer: B. Determine the response to stimuli
Rationale: Stupor is a level of consciousness characterized by deep sleep or
unresponsiveness from which the client can only be aroused by vigorous and repeated
stimulation. The defining characteristic of stupor is the client's response to external
stimuli—specifically, requiring strong, persistent stimuli to elicit any response. To confirm
stupor, the nurse must apply graduated stimuli (verbal, tactile, painful) and document
the type of stimulus required and the quality of response obtained.
4. The nurse begins a client's musculoskeletal assessment. While using the
technique of inspection, the nurse assesses for which possible findings? Select
all that apply.
A. Atrophy
B. Crepitus
C. Kyphosis
D. Osteopenia
E. Contracture
Correct Answer: A, C, E
Rationale: Inspection is the first technique in musculoskeletal assessment and involves
visual observation of the body for symmetry, alignment, contour, and gross
abnormalities. Atrophy (A) is visible muscle wasting. Kyphosis (C) is an exaggerated
posterior curvature of the thoracic spine that is visually apparent. Contracture (E) is a
permanent shortening of a muscle or joint that results in visible deformity. Crepitus (B) is
, WGU D443 OA EXAM SET 2
1. A college student sees the nurse because she has missed her last two
menstrual periods. She reports she has not had sexual intercourse in one month.
The nurse requests a pregnancy test, which is negative. Based on this client's
history, which assessment is most important for the nurse to obtain?
A. A detailed menstrual history and any changes in lifestyle or stress levels
B. Body weight
C. Hirsutism
D. Thyroid enlargement
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: While body weight, hirsutism, and thyroid enlargement are all relevant
assessments for secondary amenorrhea, the most important initial assessment is
obtaining a detailed menstrual history and evaluating lifestyle factors such as stress,
exercise patterns, and nutritional status. Secondary amenorrhea (absence of menses
for 3+ cycles or 6+ months in a previously menstruating female) can result from
hypothalamic dysfunction due to stress, excessive exercise, or low body weight. A
comprehensive menstrual history establishes the baseline for further diagnostic workup.
Pregnancy must always be ruled out first, which was done. Weight changes, hirsutism,
and thyroid assessment would follow based on the menstrual history findings.
2. Which question by the nurse is likely to elicit the most information regarding a
client's use of medications to treat a chronic cough?
A. "What medications are you currently taking?"
B. "What medications have you taken for your cough?"
C. "Have you tried any generic brands of cough syrup?"
D. "Have you been prescribed any medications for your cough?"
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Option B is the most effective therapeutic communication technique
because it is open-ended and focused specifically on the client's cough treatment.
Option A is too broad and may not capture cough-specific medications. Option C is
,closed-ended and limits the response to generic brands only. Option D restricts the
answer to prescribed medications, missing over-the-counter (OTC) remedies, herbal
supplements, or home remedies the client may be using. Effective health history taking
requires open-ended, focused questions that encourage the client to provide
comprehensive information about self-treatment behaviors.
3. To complete the sentence, heart sounds are loudest for S1 at the ________.
A. Left side of the heart
B. Right side of the heart
C. Apex of the heart
D. Center, base of the heart
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: S1 (the first heart sound, "lub") is produced by closure of the mitral and
tricuspid (atrioventricular) valves and is best heard at the apex of the heart —
specifically at the 5th intercostal space, left midclavicular line (the mitral area, or M
point). S2 (the second heart sound, "dub") is produced by closure of the aortic and
pulmonic (semilunar) valves and is loudest at the base of the heart. Understanding the
anatomical locations of heart sounds is essential for accurate cardiac assessment and
identification of murmurs or extra heart sounds.
4. An older adult client comes to the healthcare provider's office for a routine
follow-up exam for high blood pressure, osteoarthritis, constipation, and chronic
sinusitis. The client recently had a cataract removed from the left eye. Which
action is most important for the nurse to address when obtaining this client's
health history?
A. Emphasize the need to place advanced directives in the medical record.
B. Complete an assessment of functional capacity and environmental hazards.
C. Distinguish between symptoms caused by disease and those due to aging.
D. Obtain a medication history including prescription and non-prescription drugs.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The client has multiple chronic conditions (hypertension, osteoarthritis,
constipation, chronic sinusitis) and recent cataract surgery, indicating polypharmacy
risk. Obtaining a comprehensive medication history — including prescription drugs,
OTC medications, herbal supplements, and vitamins — is the priority because drug
interactions, duplications, and adverse effects are common in older adults with multiple
, WGU D443 OA EXAM SET 3
1. A client is in the clinic and is reporting lower abdominal pain and constipation.
Which information is of greatest concern to the nurse when obtaining the health
history from this client?
A. Family history of irritable bowel syndrome on the father's side
B. Family history of colon cancer on mother's side
C. Client reports increased fiber intake in the past month
D. Client has been taking over-the-counter laxatives daily
Correct Answer: B. Family history of colon cancer on mother's side
Rationale: A family history of colon cancer, particularly on the mother's side (first-
degree relative), significantly increases the client's risk for colorectal malignancy. Lower
abdominal pain and constipation in a client with a positive family history of colon cancer
are red flag symptoms that require immediate further investigation, including
colonoscopy. The nurse must prioritize this information and ensure the healthcare
provider is aware of both the symptoms and the family history to determine appropriate
diagnostic testing. While laxative overuse (D) and IBS history (A) are relevant, they do
not carry the same mortality risk as potential malignancy.
2. A client states that she had a mastectomy of her left breast last year and now
experiences lymphedema. What should the nurse expect to find when examining
the client?
A. Swelling of the right arm and pitting edema
B. Swelling of the left arm and non-pitting edema
C. Swelling of both arms with pitting edema
D. Swelling of the left arm with erythema and warmth
Correct Answer: B. Swelling of the left arm and non-pitting edema
Rationale: Lymphedema following mastectomy occurs because axillary lymph node
dissection disrupts lymphatic drainage from the ipsilateral (same-side) upper extremity.
The affected arm (left, in this case) develops non-pitting edema because the excess
fluid is protein-rich lymph that accumulates in the interstitial spaces and causes tissue
fibrosis over time. Unlike venous edema, lymphedema does not pit because the protein
content creates tissue changes. The nurse should assess arm circumference, skin
,integrity, and range of motion, and educate the client on lymphedema precautions
including avoiding blood pressure measurements, injections, and venipuncture in the
affected arm.
3. A client is in the clinic for a yearly physical examination. The nurse is preparing
to perform a focused assessment. Which action should the nurse take when
preparing to examine the client's abdomen?
A. Ask the client to urinate before beginning the examination
B. Instruct the client to fast for 8 hours prior to the exam
C. Position the client in the left lateral decubitus position
D. Administer a bowel preparation solution the evening before
Correct Answer: A. Ask the client to urinate before beginning the examination
Rationale: An empty bladder is essential for accurate abdominal assessment because
a full bladder elevates the uterus (in females) and can obscure palpation of abdominal
organs, potentially leading to misinterpretation of findings such as organomegaly,
masses, or tenderness. The supine position with knees flexed is standard for abdominal
examination. Fasting (B) and bowel prep (D) are not required for a routine physical
examination. The left lateral decubitus position (C) is used for splenic percussion, not as
the initial position for general abdominal assessment.
4. The nurse is assessing for the presence of a hernia. Which action should the
nurse ask the client to perform while lying supine?
A. Use abdominal muscles to sit up
B. Perform the Valsalva maneuver while holding breath
C. Extend both legs straight and lift them 6 inches off the bed
D. Turn onto the left side and draw knees to the chest
Correct Answer: A. Use abdominal muscles to sit up
Rationale: To assess for an abdominal hernia, the nurse asks the client to perform a sit-
up or bear down (increase intra-abdominal pressure) while observing for any bulging at
the umbilicus, inguinal area, or prior surgical incision sites. The sit-up maneuver
increases intra-abdominal pressure, which will cause a hernia to become more
prominent if present. The Valsalva maneuver (B) is used during cardiac auscultation for
murmurs. Leg lifts (C) assess lower abdominal muscle strength. The left lateral position
(D) is used for rectal examination.
, WGU D443 OA EXAM STUDY GUIDE
1. What does the inspection component of physical assessment involve?
Using sight to assess size, shape, color, and symmetry.
2. What does the palpation component of physical assessment involve?
Using touch to assess temperature, vibration, texture, tenderness, and size. Using
dorsal surface of hand for temperature and palmar surface for vibration. Assess tender
areas last.
3. What does the percussion component of physical assessment involve?
Tapping body parts to assess location, size, shape, and tissue density.
4. What does the auscultation component of physical assessment involve?
Listening for sounds and assessing volume, intensity, duration, frequency, and quality.
5. What is the typical order of most physical assessments?
Inspect, palpate, percuss, auscultate.
6. What is the order of abdominal assessment to avoid altering bowel sounds?
Inspect, auscultate, percuss, palpate. Mnemonic: I Am Perfect, Pal!
7. What are the Physical Assessment Steps?
, 1. Introductory explanation, hand hygiene, etc.
2. General Survey
3. Vital Signs
4. Pain assessment
5. Skin Assessment
6. Head, neck, eyes, ears, nose, mouth/throat assessment
7. Anterior and Posterior chest assessment
8. Abdominal Assessment
9. Musculoskeletal Assessment
10. Neurologic assessment
11. Closing remarks and safety checks
8. What is the first step when beginning an assessment?
Perform hand hygiene.
9. Why is it important to make your presence known when starting an
assessment?
To respect the patient's privacy, knock on the door.
10. What should you do after making your presence known during an
assessment?
Introduce yourself and state your job title (e.g. nurse, tech, nursing student).
11. How can you ensure patient privacy during an assessment?
Provide for privacy.
12. What information should you communicate to the patient at the beginning of
an assessment?
