NR 324 ADULT HEALTH I EXAM
QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS
ALREADY GRADED A+. 100%
LATEST MOCK PRACTICE SET
250 Questions with Answers and Detailed Rationales
100 PERCENT GUARANTEED PASS
INSTANT DOWNLOAD ANSWERS INCLUDED
IMPORTANCE OF THIS DOCUMENT
This comprehensive examination preparation guide has been meticulously developed to help you succeed in the
NR 324 ADULT HEALTH I EXAM QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS ALREADY GRADED A+. 100% VERIFIED
SOLUTIONS | UPDATED PER LATEST GUIDELINES | GRADED A+. It contains 250 carefully selected questions
that reflect the most current exam content and testing strategies. Each question is accompanied by a correct
answer and a detailed rationale that explains the underlying pathophysiology, pharmacology, or clinical reasoning.
Self-Assessment – Test your knowledge and Exam Preparation – Familiarize yourself with the
identify areas requiring further question format and content
study areas
Concept Reinforcement – Deepen your Confidence Building – Develop test-taking
understanding through strategies and reduce
evidence-based exam anxiety
rationales
Time Management – Practice answering
questions under simulated
exam conditions
Review Summary 250 Questions
Foundations - Application - NR 324 Adult Health I AND Already A 100 Solutions Updated PER Guidelines
A Adult Health I Undergraduate YEAR 3 BSN
All answers with rationales
,Table of Contents
Section A - Cardiovascular Disorders Section B - Respiratory Disorders
Questions 1 to 63 Questions 64 to 126
Section C - Neurological Disorders Section D - Renal AND Urinary
Questions 127 to 189 Disorders
Questions 190 to 250
,Section A - Cardiovascular Disorders
Q1.
A patient with heart failure is admitted with dyspnea and bilateral lower extremity edema.
Which hemodynamic parameter is most indicative of cardiogenic pulmonary edema?
A. Central venous pressure (CVP) of 4 mm B. Pulmonary artery wedge pressure
Hg (PAWP) of 25 mm Hg
C. Cardiac output (CO) of 6 L/min D. Systemic vascular resistance (SVR) of
800 dynes-sec/cm5
Correct: B - Pulmonary artery wedge pressure (PAWP) of 25 mm Hg
Rationale:PAWP reflects left atrial pressure; normal is 6-12 mm Hg. A PAWP of 25 mm Hg
indicates elevated left ventricular end-diastolic pressure, consistent with pulmonary edema.
CVP (A) reflects right-sided pressures; CO (C) is normal to low in heart failure; SVR (D) is
typically elevated in heart failure but not diagnostic of pulmonary edema.
Q2.
A patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) has an arterial blood gas
(ABG) showing pH 7.32, PaCO2 60 mm Hg, PaO2 55 mm Hg, HCO3- 30 mEq/L. Which
acid-base imbalance is present?
A. Acute respiratory acidosis with metabolic B. Chronic respiratory acidosis with
alkalosis metabolic compensation
C. Metabolic acidosis with respiratory D. Mixed respiratory and metabolic acidosis
compensation
Correct: B - Chronic respiratory acidosis with metabolic compensation
Rationale:The pH is acidic (7.32), PaCO2 is elevated (60), and HCO3- is elevated (30),
indicating respiratory acidosis with metabolic compensation. In chronic COPD, the kidneys
retain bicarbonate to compensate for chronic hypercapnia. Acute respiratory acidosis would
show normal HCO3-; metabolic acidosis would have low HCO3- and low PaCO2.
Q3.
Which of the following findings is most concerning for a patient with acute kidney injury
(AKI) in the oliguric phase?
A. Serum potassium 5.2 mEq/L B. Urine specific gravity 1.015
C. Fractional excretion of sodium (FENa) D. Serum creatinine rising 0.5 mg/dL per
less than 1% day
Page 3
, Section A - Cardiovascular Disorders
Correct: A - Serum potassium 5.2 mEq/L
Rationale:Hyperkalemia (K+ >5.0 mEq/L) is life-threatening due to risk of cardiac
arrhythmias. In AKI, potassium excretion is impaired. FENa <1% suggests prerenal cause,
which is less concerning than intrinsic renal failure. A rising creatinine is expected. Specific
gravity 1.015 is isosthenuric, common in AKI but not immediately dangerous.
Q4.
A patient with cirrhosis and ascites is receiving furosemide and spironolactone. Which
laboratory value requires immediate intervention?
A. Serum sodium 132 mEq/L B. Serum potassium 5.8 mEq/L
C. Serum albumin 2.5 g/dL D. International normalized ratio (INR) 1.5
Correct: B - Serum potassium 5.8 mEq/L
Rationale:Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic; combined with furosemide,
hyperkalemia can occur. K+ 5.8 mEq/L is critical and may cause cardiac dysrhythmias.
Hyponatremia (A) is common in cirrhosis but less immediately dangerous; hypoalbuminemia
(C) and elevated INR (D) are expected in cirrhosis but not acute emergencies.
Q5.
A patient with type 2 diabetes mellitus is started on metformin. Which instruction is most
important for the nurse to include in discharge teaching?
A. Take the medication with meals to reduce B. Monitor blood glucose levels twice daily.
gastrointestinal upset.
C. Avoid alcohol consumption while taking D. Report any episodes of hypoglycemia to
metformin. the healthcare provider.
Correct: C - Avoid alcohol consumption while taking metformin.
Rationale:Alcohol can potentiate lactic acidosis, a rare but serious adverse effect of
metformin. While all options are relevant, avoiding alcohol is critical for safety. Metformin
rarely causes hypoglycemia (D) as monotherapy; GI upset (A) can be minimized but is not the
most important; glucose monitoring (B) is standard but not unique.
Q6.
A patient is admitted with acute pancreatitis. Which laboratory finding is most consistent
with this diagnosis?
A. Elevated alkaline phosphatase with B. Elevated serum amylase and lipase
normal bilirubin
Page 4
QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS
ALREADY GRADED A+. 100%
LATEST MOCK PRACTICE SET
250 Questions with Answers and Detailed Rationales
100 PERCENT GUARANTEED PASS
INSTANT DOWNLOAD ANSWERS INCLUDED
IMPORTANCE OF THIS DOCUMENT
This comprehensive examination preparation guide has been meticulously developed to help you succeed in the
NR 324 ADULT HEALTH I EXAM QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS ALREADY GRADED A+. 100% VERIFIED
SOLUTIONS | UPDATED PER LATEST GUIDELINES | GRADED A+. It contains 250 carefully selected questions
that reflect the most current exam content and testing strategies. Each question is accompanied by a correct
answer and a detailed rationale that explains the underlying pathophysiology, pharmacology, or clinical reasoning.
Self-Assessment – Test your knowledge and Exam Preparation – Familiarize yourself with the
identify areas requiring further question format and content
study areas
Concept Reinforcement – Deepen your Confidence Building – Develop test-taking
understanding through strategies and reduce
evidence-based exam anxiety
rationales
Time Management – Practice answering
questions under simulated
exam conditions
Review Summary 250 Questions
Foundations - Application - NR 324 Adult Health I AND Already A 100 Solutions Updated PER Guidelines
A Adult Health I Undergraduate YEAR 3 BSN
All answers with rationales
,Table of Contents
Section A - Cardiovascular Disorders Section B - Respiratory Disorders
Questions 1 to 63 Questions 64 to 126
Section C - Neurological Disorders Section D - Renal AND Urinary
Questions 127 to 189 Disorders
Questions 190 to 250
,Section A - Cardiovascular Disorders
Q1.
A patient with heart failure is admitted with dyspnea and bilateral lower extremity edema.
Which hemodynamic parameter is most indicative of cardiogenic pulmonary edema?
A. Central venous pressure (CVP) of 4 mm B. Pulmonary artery wedge pressure
Hg (PAWP) of 25 mm Hg
C. Cardiac output (CO) of 6 L/min D. Systemic vascular resistance (SVR) of
800 dynes-sec/cm5
Correct: B - Pulmonary artery wedge pressure (PAWP) of 25 mm Hg
Rationale:PAWP reflects left atrial pressure; normal is 6-12 mm Hg. A PAWP of 25 mm Hg
indicates elevated left ventricular end-diastolic pressure, consistent with pulmonary edema.
CVP (A) reflects right-sided pressures; CO (C) is normal to low in heart failure; SVR (D) is
typically elevated in heart failure but not diagnostic of pulmonary edema.
Q2.
A patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) has an arterial blood gas
(ABG) showing pH 7.32, PaCO2 60 mm Hg, PaO2 55 mm Hg, HCO3- 30 mEq/L. Which
acid-base imbalance is present?
A. Acute respiratory acidosis with metabolic B. Chronic respiratory acidosis with
alkalosis metabolic compensation
C. Metabolic acidosis with respiratory D. Mixed respiratory and metabolic acidosis
compensation
Correct: B - Chronic respiratory acidosis with metabolic compensation
Rationale:The pH is acidic (7.32), PaCO2 is elevated (60), and HCO3- is elevated (30),
indicating respiratory acidosis with metabolic compensation. In chronic COPD, the kidneys
retain bicarbonate to compensate for chronic hypercapnia. Acute respiratory acidosis would
show normal HCO3-; metabolic acidosis would have low HCO3- and low PaCO2.
Q3.
Which of the following findings is most concerning for a patient with acute kidney injury
(AKI) in the oliguric phase?
A. Serum potassium 5.2 mEq/L B. Urine specific gravity 1.015
C. Fractional excretion of sodium (FENa) D. Serum creatinine rising 0.5 mg/dL per
less than 1% day
Page 3
, Section A - Cardiovascular Disorders
Correct: A - Serum potassium 5.2 mEq/L
Rationale:Hyperkalemia (K+ >5.0 mEq/L) is life-threatening due to risk of cardiac
arrhythmias. In AKI, potassium excretion is impaired. FENa <1% suggests prerenal cause,
which is less concerning than intrinsic renal failure. A rising creatinine is expected. Specific
gravity 1.015 is isosthenuric, common in AKI but not immediately dangerous.
Q4.
A patient with cirrhosis and ascites is receiving furosemide and spironolactone. Which
laboratory value requires immediate intervention?
A. Serum sodium 132 mEq/L B. Serum potassium 5.8 mEq/L
C. Serum albumin 2.5 g/dL D. International normalized ratio (INR) 1.5
Correct: B - Serum potassium 5.8 mEq/L
Rationale:Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic; combined with furosemide,
hyperkalemia can occur. K+ 5.8 mEq/L is critical and may cause cardiac dysrhythmias.
Hyponatremia (A) is common in cirrhosis but less immediately dangerous; hypoalbuminemia
(C) and elevated INR (D) are expected in cirrhosis but not acute emergencies.
Q5.
A patient with type 2 diabetes mellitus is started on metformin. Which instruction is most
important for the nurse to include in discharge teaching?
A. Take the medication with meals to reduce B. Monitor blood glucose levels twice daily.
gastrointestinal upset.
C. Avoid alcohol consumption while taking D. Report any episodes of hypoglycemia to
metformin. the healthcare provider.
Correct: C - Avoid alcohol consumption while taking metformin.
Rationale:Alcohol can potentiate lactic acidosis, a rare but serious adverse effect of
metformin. While all options are relevant, avoiding alcohol is critical for safety. Metformin
rarely causes hypoglycemia (D) as monotherapy; GI upset (A) can be minimized but is not the
most important; glucose monitoring (B) is standard but not unique.
Q6.
A patient is admitted with acute pancreatitis. Which laboratory finding is most consistent
with this diagnosis?
A. Elevated alkaline phosphatase with B. Elevated serum amylase and lipase
normal bilirubin
Page 4
