Gerontology HESI TEST Questions (Latest
Update ) with Verified Answers
100 % Correct [Grade A]
A 65-year-old male comes to the clinic complaining of severe abdominal pain, fever,
and nausea with a change in his bowel habits. You diagnose diverticulitis. In educating
him about this condition you tell him all but which of the following?
It occurs when one or more small bulging pouches in the digestive tract become
inflamed or infected.
It is common, particularly in persons over 40.
Some cases of diverticulitis can be treated with rest, changes in the diet and
antibiotics.
Diverticulitis may be the result of too much fiber in the diet. - correct answer
Diverticulitis may be the result of too much fiber in the diet.
Diverticulitis is rare in countries where people eat a high-fiber diet that helps keep
stools soft. But in the USA where the average diet is high in refined carbohydrates and
,low in fiber it is more common. Diverticulitis may be the result of too little fiber in the
diet.
A 68 year female patient has frequent migraine headaches. Besides checking for
possible triggers and the patient's family history, the GNP should also assess the
extent at which headaches limit all of the following except for:
Job performance.
Activities of daily living.
Medication absorption.
Social interaction. - correct answer Medication absorption.
The incidence of new onset migraine headaches reduces with age, but after age 65 the
risk of headaches involving a serious medical condition increases significantly. The
GNP should check for other co-existing conditions and medications the patient is
taking. While the GNP cannot determine how well medications are being absorbed into
the patient's system without further diagnostics, the GNP should recognize during
initial assessment that some medications may induce migraines.
,A patient with folliculitis is given Isotretinoin. Of the following, which would be the
correct dosage?
Apply tid before antibiotic ointment.
2%, apply bid X 10 days and cover with DSD.
Apply to area bid-tid.
0.5 to 1 mg/kg/day PO in divided doses. - correct answer 0.5 to 1 mg/kg/day PO in
divided doses.
The preceding medications should be administered at the following dosages: Mupirocin
ointment - 2%, apply bid X 10 days and cover with DSD. Gentamicin Sulfate cream or
ointment - Apply to area bid-tid. Isotretinoin - 0.5 to 1 mg/kg/day PO in divided doses.
Anhydrous ethyl alcohol with 6.25% aluminum chloride - Apply tid before antibiotic
ointment.
You have diagnosed a 74-year-old patient with angle-closure glaucoma. Which of
these MOST likely caused the condition?
, Sudden increase in intraocular pressure.
Hardening of the lens.
Lens clouding.
Gradual onset of increased intraocular pressure. - correct answer Sudden increase in
intraocular pressure.
Presbyopia is caused by the hardening of the lens. Senile cataracts is caused by lens
clouding. Open-angle glaucoma is caused by the gradual onset of increased
intraocular pressure. Angle-closure glaucoma is caused by the sudden increase in
intraocular pressure.
Which disease is NOT going to impact the older adult's ability to eat?
stroke
dyphagia
Parkinson's disease
hypertension - correct answer hypertension
Update ) with Verified Answers
100 % Correct [Grade A]
A 65-year-old male comes to the clinic complaining of severe abdominal pain, fever,
and nausea with a change in his bowel habits. You diagnose diverticulitis. In educating
him about this condition you tell him all but which of the following?
It occurs when one or more small bulging pouches in the digestive tract become
inflamed or infected.
It is common, particularly in persons over 40.
Some cases of diverticulitis can be treated with rest, changes in the diet and
antibiotics.
Diverticulitis may be the result of too much fiber in the diet. - correct answer
Diverticulitis may be the result of too much fiber in the diet.
Diverticulitis is rare in countries where people eat a high-fiber diet that helps keep
stools soft. But in the USA where the average diet is high in refined carbohydrates and
,low in fiber it is more common. Diverticulitis may be the result of too little fiber in the
diet.
A 68 year female patient has frequent migraine headaches. Besides checking for
possible triggers and the patient's family history, the GNP should also assess the
extent at which headaches limit all of the following except for:
Job performance.
Activities of daily living.
Medication absorption.
Social interaction. - correct answer Medication absorption.
The incidence of new onset migraine headaches reduces with age, but after age 65 the
risk of headaches involving a serious medical condition increases significantly. The
GNP should check for other co-existing conditions and medications the patient is
taking. While the GNP cannot determine how well medications are being absorbed into
the patient's system without further diagnostics, the GNP should recognize during
initial assessment that some medications may induce migraines.
,A patient with folliculitis is given Isotretinoin. Of the following, which would be the
correct dosage?
Apply tid before antibiotic ointment.
2%, apply bid X 10 days and cover with DSD.
Apply to area bid-tid.
0.5 to 1 mg/kg/day PO in divided doses. - correct answer 0.5 to 1 mg/kg/day PO in
divided doses.
The preceding medications should be administered at the following dosages: Mupirocin
ointment - 2%, apply bid X 10 days and cover with DSD. Gentamicin Sulfate cream or
ointment - Apply to area bid-tid. Isotretinoin - 0.5 to 1 mg/kg/day PO in divided doses.
Anhydrous ethyl alcohol with 6.25% aluminum chloride - Apply tid before antibiotic
ointment.
You have diagnosed a 74-year-old patient with angle-closure glaucoma. Which of
these MOST likely caused the condition?
, Sudden increase in intraocular pressure.
Hardening of the lens.
Lens clouding.
Gradual onset of increased intraocular pressure. - correct answer Sudden increase in
intraocular pressure.
Presbyopia is caused by the hardening of the lens. Senile cataracts is caused by lens
clouding. Open-angle glaucoma is caused by the gradual onset of increased
intraocular pressure. Angle-closure glaucoma is caused by the sudden increase in
intraocular pressure.
Which disease is NOT going to impact the older adult's ability to eat?
stroke
dyphagia
Parkinson's disease
hypertension - correct answer hypertension
