NBRC SDS EXAM PRACTICE
2026/2027 LATEST TEST BANK
WITH PRACTICE EXAM
LATEST MOCK PRACTICE SET
200 Questions with Answers and Detailed Rationales
100 PERCENT GUARANTEED PASS
INSTANT DOWNLOAD ANSWERS INCLUDED
IMPORTANCE OF THIS DOCUMENT
This comprehensive examination preparation guide has been meticulously developed to help you succeed in the
NBRC SDS EXAM PRACTICE 2026/2027 LATEST TEST BANK WITH PRACTICE EXAM QUESTIONS AND
CORRECT VERIFIED ANSWERS LATEST UPDATE. It contains 200 carefully selected questions that reflect the
most current exam content and testing strategies. Each question is accompanied by a correct answer and a
detailed rationale that explains the underlying pathophysiology, pharmacology, or clinical reasoning.
Self-Assessment – Test your knowledge and Exam Preparation – Familiarize yourself with the
identify areas requiring further question format and content
study areas
Concept Reinforcement – Deepen your Confidence Building – Develop test-taking
understanding through strategies and reduce
evidence-based exam anxiety
rationales
Time Management – Practice answering
questions under simulated
exam conditions
Review Summary 200 Questions
Foundations - Application - NBRC SDS 2026/2027 BANK WITH AND Correct Update Respiratory CARE /
NBRC Self-directed Study SDS Preparation Graduate
All answers with rationales
,Table of Contents
Section A - Patient Assessment Section B - Airway Management
Questions 1 to 50 Questions 51 to 100
Section C - Mechanical Ventilation Section D - Oxygen Therapy
Questions 101 to 150 Questions 151 to 200
,Section A - Patient Assessment
Q1.
A patient receiving volume-controlled ventilation has the following waveform: flow
waveform shows a prolonged expiratory phase with failure to return to baseline before the
next breath, and the pressure waveform shows a gradual upward slope during inspiration.
Which of the following is the most appropriate initial action?
A. Increase the inspiratory time B. Decrease the respiratory rate
C. Switch to pressure-controlled ventilation D. Increase the tidal volume
Correct: B - Decrease the respiratory rate
Rationale:The waveform indicates air trapping (auto-PEEP) due to insufficient expiratory
time. Decreasing the respiratory rate prolongs expiration, allowing the lung to empty more
completely. Increasing inspiratory time or tidal volume would worsen air trapping. Switching to
pressure control does not directly address the expiratory time deficit.
Q2.
A 45-year-old patient with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) is being ventilated
with a lung-protective strategy. The plateau pressure is 30 cm H2O, and the PaO2/FiO2
ratio is 150. Which of the following ventilator settings is most likely to improve
oxygenation without increasing the risk of ventilator-induced lung injury?
A. Increase FiO2 to 1.0 B. Increase PEEP to 15 cm H2O
C. Increase tidal volume to 8 mL/kg D. Switch to airway pressure release
predicted body weight ventilation
Correct: B - Increase PEEP to 15 cm H2O
Rationale:In ARDS, increasing PEEP can recruit collapsed alveoli and improve oxygenation,
provided plateau pressure remains 30 cm H2O. Increasing FiO2 to 1.0 may cause oxygen
toxicity. Higher tidal volumes increase the risk of volutrauma. APRV may be considered but is
not first-line and can increase lung stress if not properly managed.
Q3.
A patient with suspected acute pulmonary embolism has a PaO2 of 55 mm Hg on room air,
a PaCO2 of 30 mm Hg, and a respiratory rate of 28 breaths/min. Which of the following
acid-base disorders is most consistent with these findings?
A. Acute respiratory acidosis B. Chronic respiratory alkalosis
Page 3
, Section A - Patient Assessment
C. Acute respiratory alkalosis with D. Metabolic acidosis with respiratory
appropriate compensation compensation
Correct: C - Acute respiratory alkalosis with appropriate compensation
Rationale:The low PaCO2 (30 mm Hg) indicates hyperventilation, causing respiratory
alkalosis. The PaO2 is low (hypoxemia), which is typical of pulmonary embolism. The
alkalosis is acute because there is no evidence of renal compensation (bicarbonate would be
elevated in chronic cases). Metabolic acidosis would show a low bicarbonate, which is not
indicated.
Q4.
During a spontaneous breathing trial, a patient develops a rapid shallow breathing index
(RSBI) of 105 breaths/min/L. Which of the following is the most appropriate interpretation?
A. The patient is likely to tolerate extubation B. The patient is at high risk of extubation
failure
C. The RSBI is indeterminate and requires D. The patient has developed acute
additional weaning parameters respiratory distress syndrome
Correct: B - The patient is at high risk of extubation failure
Rationale:An RSBI >105 breaths/min/L is associated with a high likelihood of extubation
failure. The threshold of 105 is commonly used to predict weaning success; values above this
indicate rapid shallow breathing, suggesting the patient is not ready for extubation. The RSBI
is a well-validated predictor, not indeterminate. ARDS is not diagnosed by RSBI alone.
Q5.
Which of the following findings is most consistent with a diagnosis of obstructive sleep
apnea (OSA) on a polysomnogram?
A. Apnea-hypopnea index (AHI) of 4 B. Desaturation episodes that occur
events/hour predominantly during REM sleep
C. Central apneas with no respiratory effort D. Mean oxygen saturation of 96% during
sleep
Correct: B - Desaturation episodes that occur predominantly during REM sleep
Rationale:In OSA, apneas and hypopneas are often more frequent and severe during REM
sleep due to reduced muscle tone, leading to desaturation. An AHI of 4 is normal (<5).
Central apneas without effort suggest central sleep apnea. Normal oxygen saturation is
inconsistent with OSA.
Page 4
2026/2027 LATEST TEST BANK
WITH PRACTICE EXAM
LATEST MOCK PRACTICE SET
200 Questions with Answers and Detailed Rationales
100 PERCENT GUARANTEED PASS
INSTANT DOWNLOAD ANSWERS INCLUDED
IMPORTANCE OF THIS DOCUMENT
This comprehensive examination preparation guide has been meticulously developed to help you succeed in the
NBRC SDS EXAM PRACTICE 2026/2027 LATEST TEST BANK WITH PRACTICE EXAM QUESTIONS AND
CORRECT VERIFIED ANSWERS LATEST UPDATE. It contains 200 carefully selected questions that reflect the
most current exam content and testing strategies. Each question is accompanied by a correct answer and a
detailed rationale that explains the underlying pathophysiology, pharmacology, or clinical reasoning.
Self-Assessment – Test your knowledge and Exam Preparation – Familiarize yourself with the
identify areas requiring further question format and content
study areas
Concept Reinforcement – Deepen your Confidence Building – Develop test-taking
understanding through strategies and reduce
evidence-based exam anxiety
rationales
Time Management – Practice answering
questions under simulated
exam conditions
Review Summary 200 Questions
Foundations - Application - NBRC SDS 2026/2027 BANK WITH AND Correct Update Respiratory CARE /
NBRC Self-directed Study SDS Preparation Graduate
All answers with rationales
,Table of Contents
Section A - Patient Assessment Section B - Airway Management
Questions 1 to 50 Questions 51 to 100
Section C - Mechanical Ventilation Section D - Oxygen Therapy
Questions 101 to 150 Questions 151 to 200
,Section A - Patient Assessment
Q1.
A patient receiving volume-controlled ventilation has the following waveform: flow
waveform shows a prolonged expiratory phase with failure to return to baseline before the
next breath, and the pressure waveform shows a gradual upward slope during inspiration.
Which of the following is the most appropriate initial action?
A. Increase the inspiratory time B. Decrease the respiratory rate
C. Switch to pressure-controlled ventilation D. Increase the tidal volume
Correct: B - Decrease the respiratory rate
Rationale:The waveform indicates air trapping (auto-PEEP) due to insufficient expiratory
time. Decreasing the respiratory rate prolongs expiration, allowing the lung to empty more
completely. Increasing inspiratory time or tidal volume would worsen air trapping. Switching to
pressure control does not directly address the expiratory time deficit.
Q2.
A 45-year-old patient with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) is being ventilated
with a lung-protective strategy. The plateau pressure is 30 cm H2O, and the PaO2/FiO2
ratio is 150. Which of the following ventilator settings is most likely to improve
oxygenation without increasing the risk of ventilator-induced lung injury?
A. Increase FiO2 to 1.0 B. Increase PEEP to 15 cm H2O
C. Increase tidal volume to 8 mL/kg D. Switch to airway pressure release
predicted body weight ventilation
Correct: B - Increase PEEP to 15 cm H2O
Rationale:In ARDS, increasing PEEP can recruit collapsed alveoli and improve oxygenation,
provided plateau pressure remains 30 cm H2O. Increasing FiO2 to 1.0 may cause oxygen
toxicity. Higher tidal volumes increase the risk of volutrauma. APRV may be considered but is
not first-line and can increase lung stress if not properly managed.
Q3.
A patient with suspected acute pulmonary embolism has a PaO2 of 55 mm Hg on room air,
a PaCO2 of 30 mm Hg, and a respiratory rate of 28 breaths/min. Which of the following
acid-base disorders is most consistent with these findings?
A. Acute respiratory acidosis B. Chronic respiratory alkalosis
Page 3
, Section A - Patient Assessment
C. Acute respiratory alkalosis with D. Metabolic acidosis with respiratory
appropriate compensation compensation
Correct: C - Acute respiratory alkalosis with appropriate compensation
Rationale:The low PaCO2 (30 mm Hg) indicates hyperventilation, causing respiratory
alkalosis. The PaO2 is low (hypoxemia), which is typical of pulmonary embolism. The
alkalosis is acute because there is no evidence of renal compensation (bicarbonate would be
elevated in chronic cases). Metabolic acidosis would show a low bicarbonate, which is not
indicated.
Q4.
During a spontaneous breathing trial, a patient develops a rapid shallow breathing index
(RSBI) of 105 breaths/min/L. Which of the following is the most appropriate interpretation?
A. The patient is likely to tolerate extubation B. The patient is at high risk of extubation
failure
C. The RSBI is indeterminate and requires D. The patient has developed acute
additional weaning parameters respiratory distress syndrome
Correct: B - The patient is at high risk of extubation failure
Rationale:An RSBI >105 breaths/min/L is associated with a high likelihood of extubation
failure. The threshold of 105 is commonly used to predict weaning success; values above this
indicate rapid shallow breathing, suggesting the patient is not ready for extubation. The RSBI
is a well-validated predictor, not indeterminate. ARDS is not diagnosed by RSBI alone.
Q5.
Which of the following findings is most consistent with a diagnosis of obstructive sleep
apnea (OSA) on a polysomnogram?
A. Apnea-hypopnea index (AHI) of 4 B. Desaturation episodes that occur
events/hour predominantly during REM sleep
C. Central apneas with no respiratory effort D. Mean oxygen saturation of 96% during
sleep
Correct: B - Desaturation episodes that occur predominantly during REM sleep
Rationale:In OSA, apneas and hypopneas are often more frequent and severe during REM
sleep due to reduced muscle tone, leading to desaturation. An AHI of 4 is normal (<5).
Central apneas without effort suggest central sleep apnea. Normal oxygen saturation is
inconsistent with OSA.
Page 4
