NR 568 Final Exam — Advanced Pharmacology for the AGPCNP (2026/2027) Chamberlain University | A+ Guarantee
Final Exam: NR568 / NR 568 (Latest Update
2026/2027)
Advanced Pharmacology for the Adult-Gerontology Primary Care Nurse Practitioner
Chamberlain University | 100 Questions | A+ Guarantee
Blueprint: S1 Pharmacokinetics in Aging (Q1–12) • S2 Dermatologic & Infectious Disease (Q13–28) • S3 Endocrine,
Reproductive & Hormone (Q29–42) • S4 Neurologic, Psychiatric & Pain (Q43–52)
Blueprint (cont.): S5 Cardiovascular, Renal & Respiratory (Q53–68) • S6 Gastrointestinal & Hepatic (Q69–76) • S7
Special Populations (Q77–85) • S8 Drug Interactions & Adverse Effects (Q86–95) • S9 Integrated Clinical Scenarios
(Q96–100)
Section 1: Pharmacokinetics & Pharmacodynamics in Aging Adults (Q1–Q12)
Age-related absorption, distribution, metabolism, excretion changes; polypharmacy; Beers Criteria; START/STOPP criteria;
renal dose adjustment; geriatric prescribing principles.
Q1: An 82-year-old patient is prescribed a new medication. The AGPCNP understands that the
most significant age-related pharmacokinetic change affecting drug excretion is:
Q2: A 78-year-old female is started on diazepam for anxiety. The AGPCNP recognizes that this
medication is particularly problematic in older adults primarily due to which pharmacokinetic
change?
A. Decreased GI motility delaying absorption
B. Increased body fat prolonging half-life of lipophilic drugs [CORRECT]
C. Decreased serum albumin increasing free drug fraction
D. Decreased gastric pH enhancing breakdown
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Aging is associated with an increased percentage of body fat and decreased lean body mass, which
significantly prolongs the half-life of lipophilic drugs such as diazepam, thiopental, and amiodarone. Diazepam's
half-life can extend from 20 hours in younger adults to over 80 hours in older adults, leading to accumulation,
sedation, falls, and cognitive impairment. This is why benzodiazepines are listed on the Beers Criteria as
medications to avoid in older adults regardless of pharmacokinetic changes.
Q3: An 85-year-old patient with hypoalbuminemia (serum albumin 2.5 g/dL) is started on
phenytoin. The AGPCNP correctly understands that:
A. Total phenytoin levels will need to be higher to achieve therapeutic effect
B. Free (unbound) phenytoin levels will be elevated, increasing toxicity risk [CORRECT]
C. Phenytoin metabolism will be significantly accelerated
D. Phenytoin absorption will be impaired
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Phenytoin is highly protein-bound (approximately 90%). In older adults with decreased serum
albumin due to malnutrition, liver disease, or chronic illness, more phenytoin remains in the free (active) form,
increasing the risk of toxicity even when total phenytoin levels appear therapeutic. The AGPCNP should
monitor free phenytoin levels or use corrected equations for total levels in hypoalbuminemic patients, and
anticipate lower maintenance doses.
Revised Correct Answers with Rationales — For NR568 Exam Preparation Only Page 1
,NR 568 Final Exam — Advanced Pharmacology for the AGPCNP (2026/2027) Chamberlain University | A+ Guarantee
Q4: A 76-year-old patient is prescribed a medication that undergoes significant Phase I hepatic
metabolism. The AGPCNP anticipates that compared to a younger adult, this patient will
experience:
A. Faster drug clearance requiring higher doses
B. Reduced Phase I metabolism leading to prolonged drug half-life and increased serum levels
[CORRECT]
C. No significant difference in metabolism
D. Enhanced Phase I metabolism but reduced Phase II metabolism
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Phase I hepatic metabolism (CYP450-mediated oxidation, reduction, hydrolysis) decreases with
aging due to reduced hepatic blood flow, decreased liver mass, and lower enzymatic activity. Phase II
conjugation reactions (glucuronidation, sulfonation) are relatively preserved. This means drugs dependent on
Phase I metabolism (e.g., diazepam, theophylline, warfarin) will have prolonged half-lives and require lower
maintenance doses or longer dosing intervals in older adults.
Q5: An 80-year-old patient with a calculated creatinine clearance of 28 mL/min is prescribed
vancomycin for a MRSA infection. The most appropriate nursing action is to:
A. Administer standard adult dosing without modification
B. Adjust the dose and dosing interval based on renal function and monitor trough levels
[CORRECT]
C. Switch to an alternative antibiotic because vancomycin is contraindicated in renal impairment
D. Increase the dose to compensate for reduced renal clearance
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Vancomycin is primarily excreted by the kidneys and requires dose and interval adjustment based
on creatinine clearance to prevent accumulation and nephrotoxicity. The AGPCNP should use age-adjusted
dosing protocols, monitor serum trough levels (target 10–20 mcg/mL depending on indication), and assess renal
function throughout therapy. Failure to adjust dosing in renal impairment can lead to nephrotoxicity,
ototoxicity, and prolonged hospitalization.
Q6: A 79-year-old patient takes nine prescription medications for hypertension, diabetes, atrial
fibrillation, and osteoarthritis. The AGPCNP identifies this patient as being at risk for
polypharmacy. The most significant consequence of polypharmacy in older adults is:
A. Reduced medication cost burden
B. Increased risk of drug interactions, adverse drug reactions, and non-adherence [CORRECT]
C. Improved therapeutic outcomes due to multiple mechanisms of action
D. Decreased need for laboratory monitoring
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Polypharmacy (typically defined as taking five or more medications) significantly increases the risk
of drug-drug interactions, adverse drug reactions, prescribing cascades, geriatric syndromes (falls, cognitive
impairment, delinquency), and non-adherence. The AGPCNP should conduct regular medication reconciliation,
identify potentially inappropriate medications using the Beers Criteria and START/STOPP criteria, and
deprescribe when risks outweigh benefits.
Q7: According to the Beers Criteria, which of the following medication classes should be avoided
in older adults due to increased risk of cognitive impairment, delirium, falls, and fractures?
A. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)
B. Long-acting benzodiazepines (e.g., diazepam, clonazepam) [CORRECT]
Revised Correct Answers with Rationales — For NR568 Exam Preparation Only Page 2
,NR 568 Final Exam — Advanced Pharmacology for the AGPCNP (2026/2027) Chamberlain University | A+ Guarantee
C. Beta-blockers for hypertension
D. Calcium channel blockers
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The Beers Criteria identifies long-acting benzodiazepines (diazepam, clonazepam,
chlordiazepoxide) as potentially inappropriate for older adults due to their prolonged half-life in this population,
leading to accumulation, sedation, cognitive impairment, falls, and hip fractures. Even short-acting
benzodiazepines should be used with caution. The AGPCNP should explore non-pharmacologic treatments for
anxiety and insomnia, and if benzodiazepines are absolutely necessary, use the lowest effective dose for the
shortest duration.
Q8: A 77-year-old patient is prescribed oxybutynin for overactive bladder. The AGPCNP should
be concerned about which adverse effect due to this medication's classification on the Beers
Criteria?
A. Hepatotoxicity
B. Anticholinergic effects including confusion, dry mouth, constipation, and urinary retention
[CORRECT]
C. QT prolongation and torsades de pointes
D. Bone marrow suppression
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Oxybutynin is a strong anticholinergic medication listed on the Beers Criteria as potentially
inappropriate in older adults due to its high anticholinergic burden. Older adults are particularly sensitive to
anticholinergic effects, which include confusion, delirium, dry mouth, constipation, urinary retention, blurred
vision, and falls. The AGPCNP should consider alternatives such as mirabegron (a beta-3 agonist) or
non-pharmacologic interventions (bladder training, pelvic floor exercises) before prescribing anticholinergic
agents for overactive bladder.
Q9: An 81-year-old patient with heart failure and chronic kidney disease (eGFR 35 mL/min)
requests naproxen for osteoarthritis pain. The AGPCNP's best response is to:
A. Prescribe naproxen at a reduced dose
B. Avoid NSAIDs due to risk of fluid retention, kidney injury, and cardiovascular events in this
high-risk patient [CORRECT]
C. Prescribe naproxen with a proton pump inhibitor for GI protection
D. Recommend combining naproxen with acetaminophen for synergistic effect
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: NSAIDs are listed on the Beers Criteria as potentially inappropriate in older adults, particularly
those with heart failure, chronic kidney disease, or hypertension. NSAIDs inhibit prostaglandin synthesis,
causing sodium and water retention (worsening heart failure), reduced renal perfusion (acute kidney injury), and
increased cardiovascular risk. The AGPCNP should recommend acetaminophen, topical NSAIDs, topical
capsaicin, physical therapy, or joint injections as safer alternatives for chronic pain management in older adults.
Q10: The AGPCNP is using the START/STOPP criteria to review medications for an 84-year-old
patient. The primary purpose of these criteria is to:
A. Identify medications that should be started (START) and stopped (STOPP) based on
evidence-based geriatric prescribing principles [CORRECT]
B. Determine which medications are covered by insurance formularies
C. Establish fixed dosing guidelines for all older adults regardless of comorbidities
D. Replace the Beers Criteria entirely for geriatric medication review
Revised Correct Answers with Rationales — For NR568 Exam Preparation Only Page 3
, NR 568 Final Exam — Advanced Pharmacology for the AGPCNP (2026/2027) Chamberlain University | A+ Guarantee
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The START (Screening Tool to Alert to Right Treatment) and STOPP (Screening Tool of Older
Persons' Prescriptions) criteria provide an evidence-based framework for identifying potentially inappropriate
medications that should be stopped (STOPP) and clinically indicated medications that are missing (START) in
older adults. Unlike the Beers Criteria (which focuses on medications to avoid), START/STOPP addresses both
under-prescribing and over-prescribing. The AGPCNP should use these tools during comprehensive geriatric
assessment and medication reconciliation.
Q11: A 75-year-old patient with type 2 diabetes, atrial fibrillation, and osteoarthritis presents with
new-onset confusion. Current medications include metformin, warfarin, acetaminophen,
diphenhydramine (for sleep), and lisinopril. Which medication is most likely contributing to the
confusion?
A. Metformin
B. Warfarin
C. Diphenhydramine [CORRECT]
D. Lisinopril
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Diphenhydramine is a strong anticholinergic medication listed on the Beers Criteria as potentially
inappropriate in older adults due to its high risk of causing confusion, delirium, cognitive impairment, sedation,
and falls. Anticholinergic burden is a well-established cause of acute confusion in older adults. The AGPCNP
should discontinue diphenhydramine, implement non-pharmacologic sleep hygiene measures, and reassess
cognitive function. This case illustrates a prescribing cascade where a side effect of one medication (insomnia)
is treated with another inappropriate medication.
Q12: When prescribing for an older adult, which principle best reflects evidence-based geriatric
pharmacotherapy?
A. Start with standard adult dosing and titrate down if adverse effects occur
B. Start low and go slow — begin with lower doses and titrate gradually based on response and
tolerability [CORRECT]
C. Use fixed-dose combinations to reduce pill burden regardless of clinical indication
D. Avoid all new medications in patients over age 80
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The "start low, go slow" principle is fundamental to geriatric prescribing because older adults have
altered pharmacokinetics (reduced renal clearance, decreased hepatic metabolism, altered distribution) and
pharmacodynamics (increased receptor sensitivity). The AGPCNP should initiate therapy at 25–50% of the
standard adult dose, allow adequate time for steady state (often 4–5 half-lives), reassess effectiveness and
tolerability, and titrate gradually. This approach minimizes adverse effects while still achieving therapeutic
goals, balancing safety with efficacy.
Section 2: Dermatologic & Infectious Disease Pharmacology (Q13–Q28)
Antifungals, anthelmintics, antivirals/HIV therapy, antibiotics (penicillins, cephalosporins, carbapenems, tetracyclines,
aminoglycosides, sulfonamides); drug of choice, monitoring, contraindications, and pregnancy considerations.
Q13: A 45-year-old patient presents with pruritic, scaly patches on the feet and between the toes.
The AGPCNP diagnoses tinea pedis and prescribes terbinafine. The patient asks how this
medication works. The best response is that terbinafine:
Revised Correct Answers with Rationales — For NR568 Exam Preparation Only Page 4
Final Exam: NR568 / NR 568 (Latest Update
2026/2027)
Advanced Pharmacology for the Adult-Gerontology Primary Care Nurse Practitioner
Chamberlain University | 100 Questions | A+ Guarantee
Blueprint: S1 Pharmacokinetics in Aging (Q1–12) • S2 Dermatologic & Infectious Disease (Q13–28) • S3 Endocrine,
Reproductive & Hormone (Q29–42) • S4 Neurologic, Psychiatric & Pain (Q43–52)
Blueprint (cont.): S5 Cardiovascular, Renal & Respiratory (Q53–68) • S6 Gastrointestinal & Hepatic (Q69–76) • S7
Special Populations (Q77–85) • S8 Drug Interactions & Adverse Effects (Q86–95) • S9 Integrated Clinical Scenarios
(Q96–100)
Section 1: Pharmacokinetics & Pharmacodynamics in Aging Adults (Q1–Q12)
Age-related absorption, distribution, metabolism, excretion changes; polypharmacy; Beers Criteria; START/STOPP criteria;
renal dose adjustment; geriatric prescribing principles.
Q1: An 82-year-old patient is prescribed a new medication. The AGPCNP understands that the
most significant age-related pharmacokinetic change affecting drug excretion is:
Q2: A 78-year-old female is started on diazepam for anxiety. The AGPCNP recognizes that this
medication is particularly problematic in older adults primarily due to which pharmacokinetic
change?
A. Decreased GI motility delaying absorption
B. Increased body fat prolonging half-life of lipophilic drugs [CORRECT]
C. Decreased serum albumin increasing free drug fraction
D. Decreased gastric pH enhancing breakdown
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Aging is associated with an increased percentage of body fat and decreased lean body mass, which
significantly prolongs the half-life of lipophilic drugs such as diazepam, thiopental, and amiodarone. Diazepam's
half-life can extend from 20 hours in younger adults to over 80 hours in older adults, leading to accumulation,
sedation, falls, and cognitive impairment. This is why benzodiazepines are listed on the Beers Criteria as
medications to avoid in older adults regardless of pharmacokinetic changes.
Q3: An 85-year-old patient with hypoalbuminemia (serum albumin 2.5 g/dL) is started on
phenytoin. The AGPCNP correctly understands that:
A. Total phenytoin levels will need to be higher to achieve therapeutic effect
B. Free (unbound) phenytoin levels will be elevated, increasing toxicity risk [CORRECT]
C. Phenytoin metabolism will be significantly accelerated
D. Phenytoin absorption will be impaired
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Phenytoin is highly protein-bound (approximately 90%). In older adults with decreased serum
albumin due to malnutrition, liver disease, or chronic illness, more phenytoin remains in the free (active) form,
increasing the risk of toxicity even when total phenytoin levels appear therapeutic. The AGPCNP should
monitor free phenytoin levels or use corrected equations for total levels in hypoalbuminemic patients, and
anticipate lower maintenance doses.
Revised Correct Answers with Rationales — For NR568 Exam Preparation Only Page 1
,NR 568 Final Exam — Advanced Pharmacology for the AGPCNP (2026/2027) Chamberlain University | A+ Guarantee
Q4: A 76-year-old patient is prescribed a medication that undergoes significant Phase I hepatic
metabolism. The AGPCNP anticipates that compared to a younger adult, this patient will
experience:
A. Faster drug clearance requiring higher doses
B. Reduced Phase I metabolism leading to prolonged drug half-life and increased serum levels
[CORRECT]
C. No significant difference in metabolism
D. Enhanced Phase I metabolism but reduced Phase II metabolism
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Phase I hepatic metabolism (CYP450-mediated oxidation, reduction, hydrolysis) decreases with
aging due to reduced hepatic blood flow, decreased liver mass, and lower enzymatic activity. Phase II
conjugation reactions (glucuronidation, sulfonation) are relatively preserved. This means drugs dependent on
Phase I metabolism (e.g., diazepam, theophylline, warfarin) will have prolonged half-lives and require lower
maintenance doses or longer dosing intervals in older adults.
Q5: An 80-year-old patient with a calculated creatinine clearance of 28 mL/min is prescribed
vancomycin for a MRSA infection. The most appropriate nursing action is to:
A. Administer standard adult dosing without modification
B. Adjust the dose and dosing interval based on renal function and monitor trough levels
[CORRECT]
C. Switch to an alternative antibiotic because vancomycin is contraindicated in renal impairment
D. Increase the dose to compensate for reduced renal clearance
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Vancomycin is primarily excreted by the kidneys and requires dose and interval adjustment based
on creatinine clearance to prevent accumulation and nephrotoxicity. The AGPCNP should use age-adjusted
dosing protocols, monitor serum trough levels (target 10–20 mcg/mL depending on indication), and assess renal
function throughout therapy. Failure to adjust dosing in renal impairment can lead to nephrotoxicity,
ototoxicity, and prolonged hospitalization.
Q6: A 79-year-old patient takes nine prescription medications for hypertension, diabetes, atrial
fibrillation, and osteoarthritis. The AGPCNP identifies this patient as being at risk for
polypharmacy. The most significant consequence of polypharmacy in older adults is:
A. Reduced medication cost burden
B. Increased risk of drug interactions, adverse drug reactions, and non-adherence [CORRECT]
C. Improved therapeutic outcomes due to multiple mechanisms of action
D. Decreased need for laboratory monitoring
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Polypharmacy (typically defined as taking five or more medications) significantly increases the risk
of drug-drug interactions, adverse drug reactions, prescribing cascades, geriatric syndromes (falls, cognitive
impairment, delinquency), and non-adherence. The AGPCNP should conduct regular medication reconciliation,
identify potentially inappropriate medications using the Beers Criteria and START/STOPP criteria, and
deprescribe when risks outweigh benefits.
Q7: According to the Beers Criteria, which of the following medication classes should be avoided
in older adults due to increased risk of cognitive impairment, delirium, falls, and fractures?
A. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)
B. Long-acting benzodiazepines (e.g., diazepam, clonazepam) [CORRECT]
Revised Correct Answers with Rationales — For NR568 Exam Preparation Only Page 2
,NR 568 Final Exam — Advanced Pharmacology for the AGPCNP (2026/2027) Chamberlain University | A+ Guarantee
C. Beta-blockers for hypertension
D. Calcium channel blockers
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The Beers Criteria identifies long-acting benzodiazepines (diazepam, clonazepam,
chlordiazepoxide) as potentially inappropriate for older adults due to their prolonged half-life in this population,
leading to accumulation, sedation, cognitive impairment, falls, and hip fractures. Even short-acting
benzodiazepines should be used with caution. The AGPCNP should explore non-pharmacologic treatments for
anxiety and insomnia, and if benzodiazepines are absolutely necessary, use the lowest effective dose for the
shortest duration.
Q8: A 77-year-old patient is prescribed oxybutynin for overactive bladder. The AGPCNP should
be concerned about which adverse effect due to this medication's classification on the Beers
Criteria?
A. Hepatotoxicity
B. Anticholinergic effects including confusion, dry mouth, constipation, and urinary retention
[CORRECT]
C. QT prolongation and torsades de pointes
D. Bone marrow suppression
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Oxybutynin is a strong anticholinergic medication listed on the Beers Criteria as potentially
inappropriate in older adults due to its high anticholinergic burden. Older adults are particularly sensitive to
anticholinergic effects, which include confusion, delirium, dry mouth, constipation, urinary retention, blurred
vision, and falls. The AGPCNP should consider alternatives such as mirabegron (a beta-3 agonist) or
non-pharmacologic interventions (bladder training, pelvic floor exercises) before prescribing anticholinergic
agents for overactive bladder.
Q9: An 81-year-old patient with heart failure and chronic kidney disease (eGFR 35 mL/min)
requests naproxen for osteoarthritis pain. The AGPCNP's best response is to:
A. Prescribe naproxen at a reduced dose
B. Avoid NSAIDs due to risk of fluid retention, kidney injury, and cardiovascular events in this
high-risk patient [CORRECT]
C. Prescribe naproxen with a proton pump inhibitor for GI protection
D. Recommend combining naproxen with acetaminophen for synergistic effect
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: NSAIDs are listed on the Beers Criteria as potentially inappropriate in older adults, particularly
those with heart failure, chronic kidney disease, or hypertension. NSAIDs inhibit prostaglandin synthesis,
causing sodium and water retention (worsening heart failure), reduced renal perfusion (acute kidney injury), and
increased cardiovascular risk. The AGPCNP should recommend acetaminophen, topical NSAIDs, topical
capsaicin, physical therapy, or joint injections as safer alternatives for chronic pain management in older adults.
Q10: The AGPCNP is using the START/STOPP criteria to review medications for an 84-year-old
patient. The primary purpose of these criteria is to:
A. Identify medications that should be started (START) and stopped (STOPP) based on
evidence-based geriatric prescribing principles [CORRECT]
B. Determine which medications are covered by insurance formularies
C. Establish fixed dosing guidelines for all older adults regardless of comorbidities
D. Replace the Beers Criteria entirely for geriatric medication review
Revised Correct Answers with Rationales — For NR568 Exam Preparation Only Page 3
, NR 568 Final Exam — Advanced Pharmacology for the AGPCNP (2026/2027) Chamberlain University | A+ Guarantee
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The START (Screening Tool to Alert to Right Treatment) and STOPP (Screening Tool of Older
Persons' Prescriptions) criteria provide an evidence-based framework for identifying potentially inappropriate
medications that should be stopped (STOPP) and clinically indicated medications that are missing (START) in
older adults. Unlike the Beers Criteria (which focuses on medications to avoid), START/STOPP addresses both
under-prescribing and over-prescribing. The AGPCNP should use these tools during comprehensive geriatric
assessment and medication reconciliation.
Q11: A 75-year-old patient with type 2 diabetes, atrial fibrillation, and osteoarthritis presents with
new-onset confusion. Current medications include metformin, warfarin, acetaminophen,
diphenhydramine (for sleep), and lisinopril. Which medication is most likely contributing to the
confusion?
A. Metformin
B. Warfarin
C. Diphenhydramine [CORRECT]
D. Lisinopril
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Diphenhydramine is a strong anticholinergic medication listed on the Beers Criteria as potentially
inappropriate in older adults due to its high risk of causing confusion, delirium, cognitive impairment, sedation,
and falls. Anticholinergic burden is a well-established cause of acute confusion in older adults. The AGPCNP
should discontinue diphenhydramine, implement non-pharmacologic sleep hygiene measures, and reassess
cognitive function. This case illustrates a prescribing cascade where a side effect of one medication (insomnia)
is treated with another inappropriate medication.
Q12: When prescribing for an older adult, which principle best reflects evidence-based geriatric
pharmacotherapy?
A. Start with standard adult dosing and titrate down if adverse effects occur
B. Start low and go slow — begin with lower doses and titrate gradually based on response and
tolerability [CORRECT]
C. Use fixed-dose combinations to reduce pill burden regardless of clinical indication
D. Avoid all new medications in patients over age 80
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The "start low, go slow" principle is fundamental to geriatric prescribing because older adults have
altered pharmacokinetics (reduced renal clearance, decreased hepatic metabolism, altered distribution) and
pharmacodynamics (increased receptor sensitivity). The AGPCNP should initiate therapy at 25–50% of the
standard adult dose, allow adequate time for steady state (often 4–5 half-lives), reassess effectiveness and
tolerability, and titrate gradually. This approach minimizes adverse effects while still achieving therapeutic
goals, balancing safety with efficacy.
Section 2: Dermatologic & Infectious Disease Pharmacology (Q13–Q28)
Antifungals, anthelmintics, antivirals/HIV therapy, antibiotics (penicillins, cephalosporins, carbapenems, tetracyclines,
aminoglycosides, sulfonamides); drug of choice, monitoring, contraindications, and pregnancy considerations.
Q13: A 45-year-old patient presents with pruritic, scaly patches on the feet and between the toes.
The AGPCNP diagnoses tinea pedis and prescribes terbinafine. The patient asks how this
medication works. The best response is that terbinafine:
Revised Correct Answers with Rationales — For NR568 Exam Preparation Only Page 4
