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NR606 Week 6 Exam V2 | NR606 Diagnosis & Management in Psychiatric-Mental Health II Practicum | Q&A with Rationale (NR606 Week 6 Exam) | Chamberlain University

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NR606 Week 6 Exam V2 | NR606 Diagnosis & Management in Psychiatric-Mental Health II Practicum | Q&A with Rationale (NR606 Week 6 Exam) | Chamberlain University

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NR606 Week 6 Exam V2 | NR606 Diagnosis
& Management in Psychiatric-Mental
Health II Practicum | Q&A with Rationale
(NR606 Week 6 Exam) | Chamberlain
University
1. A 9-year-old child is being evaluated for ADHD. The PMHNP understands that according to

DSM-5-TR criteria, symptoms must be present in at least how many settings?

A. Two or more settings (e.g., home and school)


B. One setting (e.g., only at home)


C. Three settings (home, school, and social activities)


D. Settings are not a requirement for diagnosis


Answer: A


Rationale: The DSM-5-TR requires that several inattentive or hyperactive-impulsive

symptoms are present in two or more settings. This ensures that the behavior is not merely

a reaction to a specific environment or individual. Accurate diagnosis depends on gathering

data from both parents and teachers to confirm cross-situational impairment.


2. When treating an adolescent with Major Depressive Disorder (MDD), which medication is

the only FDA-approved SSRI for children aged 8 and older?

A. Fluoxetine (Prozac)

,B. Escitalopram (Lexapro)


C. Sertraline (Zoloft)


D. Paroxetine (Paxil)


Answer: A


Rationale: Fluoxetine is the only SSRI with FDA approval for the treatment of depression

in children aged 8 and older. While other SSRIs may be used off-label, clinicians must be

aware of the specific indications and black box warnings. Monitoring for suicidal ideation is

mandatory during the initial phases of treatment in this population.


3. Which therapeutic approach is considered the ‘gold standard’ for treating pediatric Anxiety

Disorders and involves gradual exposure to feared stimuli?

A. Dialectical Behavior Therapy (DBT)


B. Psychoanalytic Play Therapy


C. Cognitive Behavioral Therapy (CBT)


D. Interpersonal Therapy (IPT)


Answer: C


Rationale: Cognitive Behavioral Therapy (CBT), particularly with exposure and response

prevention, is highly effective for pediatric anxiety. It focuses on identifying maladaptive

thought patterns and systematically facing fears to reduce avoidance behaviors. Research

, consistently supports CBT as a primary non-pharmacological intervention for childhood

phobias and generalized anxiety.


4. A 5-year-old child presents with persistent deficits in social communication and social

interaction across multiple contexts. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Social Communication Disorder


B. Autism Spectrum Disorder (ASD)


C. Intellectual Disability


D. Reactive Attachment Disorder


Answer: B


Rationale: Autism Spectrum Disorder (ASD) is characterized by persistent deficits in social

communication and interaction, alongside restricted, repetitive patterns of behavior. These

symptoms must be present in early development and cause significant impairment in

functioning. Early intervention and comprehensive assessment are critical for optimizing

developmental outcomes in these children.


5. In the pharmacological management of ADHD, which of the following is a non-stimulant

medication that acts as a selective norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor?

A. Atomoxetine (Strattera)


B. Lisdexamfetamine (Vyvanse)


C. Methylphenidate (Ritalin)

Información del documento

Subido en
16 de julio de 2026
Número de páginas
30
Escrito en
2025/2026
Tipo
Examen
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