NUR 210 / NUR 210 Exam 1 (Latest )
Principles of Pharmacology - Galen Tested Questions with Revised Correct Answers
Galen College of Nursing | 50 Questions | A+ Guarantee
Section 1: Foundational Concepts in Pharmacology (Drug Nomenclature, Drug Classifications, FDA
Regulation, and Legal/Ethical Issues) - Q1-10
Q1: A nursing student is reviewing medication orders and sees the drug name "acetaminophen" on the label. Which type of
drug name is "acetaminophen"?
A. Chemical name
B. Generic name [CORRECT]
C. Brand name
D. Therapeutic classification
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Acetaminophen is the generic (nonproprietary) name of the drug, which is the official name assigned by the United States
Adopted Names (USAN) council. The chemical name (A) describes the molecular structure (e.g., N-acetyl-para-aminophenol). The
brand name (C) is the proprietary name such as Tylenol. Therapeutic classification (D) refers to the drug category (e.g.,
analgesic/antipyretic), not a specific name type.
Q2: A patient asks the nurse why the hospital uses "metoprolol" instead of "Lopressor." Which response by the nurse is most
accurate?
A. "Brand name drugs are always more effective than generic drugs."
B. "Generic drugs have the same active ingredient, dose, route, and bioavailability as brand name drugs."
[CORRECT]
C. "Generic drugs are not regulated by the FDA."
D. "The brand name is required for insurance billing purposes."
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Generic drugs must demonstrate bioequivalence to the brand name product, meaning they have the same active ingredient,
strength, dosage form, route of administration, and bioavailability. The FDA regulates both brand and generic drugs (C is wrong). While
individual patient responses may vary, generic drugs are not inherently less effective (A is wrong). Insurance billing does not require
brand names (D is wrong). Cost is the primary difference, with generics typically being less expensive.
Q3: A nurse is administering a medication classified as DEA Schedule II. Which of the following characteristics is true of
Schedule II drugs?
A. No accepted medical use and high abuse potential
B. High abuse potential with accepted medical use; prescriptions cannot be refilled [CORRECT]
C. Moderate abuse potential; prescriptions may be refilled up to 5 times
D. Lowest abuse potential; available without a prescription in some states
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: DEA Schedule II drugs (e.g., morphine, oxycodone, fentanyl, methylphenidate) have a high abuse potential with severe
psychological or physical dependence liability but have accepted medical uses. Prescriptions for Schedule II drugs cannot be refilled; a
new prescription is required each time. Schedule I (A) has no accepted medical use. Schedule III (C) allows 5 refills in 6 months.
Schedule V (D) has the lowest abuse potential and some formulations may be dispensed without a prescription in certain states.
Q4: A drug is classified by the FDA as Pregnancy Category X. The nurse understands that this classification means:
A. Studies in animals have shown no risk, but human studies are lacking
B. Animal studies have shown risk, but human studies are inadequate
C. Positive evidence of human fetal risk based on adverse reaction data
, D. The drug is contraindicated in pregnancy because fetal risk clearly outweighs any possible benefit
[CORRECT]
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Pregnancy Category X indicates that studies in animals or humans have demonstrated fetal abnormalities, or there is positive
evidence of human fetal risk based on adverse reaction data, and the risk of use in pregnant women clearly outweighs any possible
benefit. The drug is contraindicated in women who are or may become pregnant. Category A (A) indicates no risk in human studies.
Category B (B) indicates no risk in animal studies. Category C (C) indicates risk cannot be ruled out. Category D is for positive evidence
of risk but potential benefits may warrant use in some situations.
Q5: A nurse is reviewing the FDA drug approval process. Which phase of clinical testing involves large-scale trials on
thousands of patients to confirm efficacy and monitor adverse effects?
A. Phase 1
B. Phase 2
C. Phase 3 [CORRECT]
D. Phase 4
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Phase 3 clinical trials involve large-scale testing on thousands of patients across multiple sites to confirm efficacy, compare
the drug to commonly used treatments, monitor adverse effects, and collect information that will allow the drug to be used safely. Phase
1 (A) involves 20-100 healthy volunteers focusing on safety and dosage. Phase 2 (B) involves 100-300 patients with the disease focusing
on efficacy and side effects. Phase 4 (D) is post-marketing surveillance after FDA approval.
Q6: A nurse is preparing to administer a controlled substance to a patient. Which legal and ethical principle is most directly
applicable?
A. The Controlled Substance Act regulates the prescribing and dispensing of drugs with abuse potential, and
the nurse must follow facility protocols for documentation and waste [CORRECT]
B. HIPAA requires the nurse to obtain written informed consent before administering any medication
C. The Nurse Practice Act allows nurses to independently prescribe controlled substances
D. Controlled substances do not require documentation as long as they are administered correctly
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The Controlled Substance Act regulates drugs with abuse potential, and nurses must follow strict facility protocols for
documentation, storage, and waste (requiring a second nurse witness for narcotics). HIPAA (B) protects patient privacy but does not
require consent for each medication. The Nurse Practice Act (C) defines the scope of practice but does not grant independent prescribing
authority to RNs in most states. All controlled substance administrations must be documented (D is wrong).
Q7: A nursing student asks the instructor about the difference between a drug classified as an ACE inhibitor and one
classified as an antihypertensive. Which response is most accurate?
A. "ACE inhibitor" is the brand name and "antihypertensive" is the generic name
B. "ACE inhibitor" classifies the drug by mechanism of action, while "antihypertensive" classifies by
therapeutic effect [CORRECT]
C. Both terms refer to the same classification system
D. "Antihypertensive" is a more specific classification than "ACE inhibitor"
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Drugs can be classified by either therapeutic effect (what condition they treat, e.g., antihypertensive, antibiotic, analgesic) or
mechanism of action (how they work at the molecular level, e.g., ACE inhibitor, beta-blocker, proton pump inhibitor). ACE inhibitor
describes the mechanism (blocking the angiotensin-converting enzyme), while antihypertensive describes the therapeutic purpose
(lowering blood pressure). Neither is a brand or generic name (A is wrong). They represent two different classification systems (C is
wrong). Antihypertensive is the broader category (D is wrong).
Q8: A nurse witnesses a medication error involving a wrong dose of insulin administered to a patient. Which action by the
nurse is most appropriate?
A. Document the error in the patient medical record and continue monitoring
Principles of Pharmacology - Galen Tested Questions with Revised Correct Answers
Galen College of Nursing | 50 Questions | A+ Guarantee
Section 1: Foundational Concepts in Pharmacology (Drug Nomenclature, Drug Classifications, FDA
Regulation, and Legal/Ethical Issues) - Q1-10
Q1: A nursing student is reviewing medication orders and sees the drug name "acetaminophen" on the label. Which type of
drug name is "acetaminophen"?
A. Chemical name
B. Generic name [CORRECT]
C. Brand name
D. Therapeutic classification
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Acetaminophen is the generic (nonproprietary) name of the drug, which is the official name assigned by the United States
Adopted Names (USAN) council. The chemical name (A) describes the molecular structure (e.g., N-acetyl-para-aminophenol). The
brand name (C) is the proprietary name such as Tylenol. Therapeutic classification (D) refers to the drug category (e.g.,
analgesic/antipyretic), not a specific name type.
Q2: A patient asks the nurse why the hospital uses "metoprolol" instead of "Lopressor." Which response by the nurse is most
accurate?
A. "Brand name drugs are always more effective than generic drugs."
B. "Generic drugs have the same active ingredient, dose, route, and bioavailability as brand name drugs."
[CORRECT]
C. "Generic drugs are not regulated by the FDA."
D. "The brand name is required for insurance billing purposes."
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Generic drugs must demonstrate bioequivalence to the brand name product, meaning they have the same active ingredient,
strength, dosage form, route of administration, and bioavailability. The FDA regulates both brand and generic drugs (C is wrong). While
individual patient responses may vary, generic drugs are not inherently less effective (A is wrong). Insurance billing does not require
brand names (D is wrong). Cost is the primary difference, with generics typically being less expensive.
Q3: A nurse is administering a medication classified as DEA Schedule II. Which of the following characteristics is true of
Schedule II drugs?
A. No accepted medical use and high abuse potential
B. High abuse potential with accepted medical use; prescriptions cannot be refilled [CORRECT]
C. Moderate abuse potential; prescriptions may be refilled up to 5 times
D. Lowest abuse potential; available without a prescription in some states
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: DEA Schedule II drugs (e.g., morphine, oxycodone, fentanyl, methylphenidate) have a high abuse potential with severe
psychological or physical dependence liability but have accepted medical uses. Prescriptions for Schedule II drugs cannot be refilled; a
new prescription is required each time. Schedule I (A) has no accepted medical use. Schedule III (C) allows 5 refills in 6 months.
Schedule V (D) has the lowest abuse potential and some formulations may be dispensed without a prescription in certain states.
Q4: A drug is classified by the FDA as Pregnancy Category X. The nurse understands that this classification means:
A. Studies in animals have shown no risk, but human studies are lacking
B. Animal studies have shown risk, but human studies are inadequate
C. Positive evidence of human fetal risk based on adverse reaction data
, D. The drug is contraindicated in pregnancy because fetal risk clearly outweighs any possible benefit
[CORRECT]
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Pregnancy Category X indicates that studies in animals or humans have demonstrated fetal abnormalities, or there is positive
evidence of human fetal risk based on adverse reaction data, and the risk of use in pregnant women clearly outweighs any possible
benefit. The drug is contraindicated in women who are or may become pregnant. Category A (A) indicates no risk in human studies.
Category B (B) indicates no risk in animal studies. Category C (C) indicates risk cannot be ruled out. Category D is for positive evidence
of risk but potential benefits may warrant use in some situations.
Q5: A nurse is reviewing the FDA drug approval process. Which phase of clinical testing involves large-scale trials on
thousands of patients to confirm efficacy and monitor adverse effects?
A. Phase 1
B. Phase 2
C. Phase 3 [CORRECT]
D. Phase 4
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Phase 3 clinical trials involve large-scale testing on thousands of patients across multiple sites to confirm efficacy, compare
the drug to commonly used treatments, monitor adverse effects, and collect information that will allow the drug to be used safely. Phase
1 (A) involves 20-100 healthy volunteers focusing on safety and dosage. Phase 2 (B) involves 100-300 patients with the disease focusing
on efficacy and side effects. Phase 4 (D) is post-marketing surveillance after FDA approval.
Q6: A nurse is preparing to administer a controlled substance to a patient. Which legal and ethical principle is most directly
applicable?
A. The Controlled Substance Act regulates the prescribing and dispensing of drugs with abuse potential, and
the nurse must follow facility protocols for documentation and waste [CORRECT]
B. HIPAA requires the nurse to obtain written informed consent before administering any medication
C. The Nurse Practice Act allows nurses to independently prescribe controlled substances
D. Controlled substances do not require documentation as long as they are administered correctly
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The Controlled Substance Act regulates drugs with abuse potential, and nurses must follow strict facility protocols for
documentation, storage, and waste (requiring a second nurse witness for narcotics). HIPAA (B) protects patient privacy but does not
require consent for each medication. The Nurse Practice Act (C) defines the scope of practice but does not grant independent prescribing
authority to RNs in most states. All controlled substance administrations must be documented (D is wrong).
Q7: A nursing student asks the instructor about the difference between a drug classified as an ACE inhibitor and one
classified as an antihypertensive. Which response is most accurate?
A. "ACE inhibitor" is the brand name and "antihypertensive" is the generic name
B. "ACE inhibitor" classifies the drug by mechanism of action, while "antihypertensive" classifies by
therapeutic effect [CORRECT]
C. Both terms refer to the same classification system
D. "Antihypertensive" is a more specific classification than "ACE inhibitor"
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Drugs can be classified by either therapeutic effect (what condition they treat, e.g., antihypertensive, antibiotic, analgesic) or
mechanism of action (how they work at the molecular level, e.g., ACE inhibitor, beta-blocker, proton pump inhibitor). ACE inhibitor
describes the mechanism (blocking the angiotensin-converting enzyme), while antihypertensive describes the therapeutic purpose
(lowering blood pressure). Neither is a brand or generic name (A is wrong). They represent two different classification systems (C is
wrong). Antihypertensive is the broader category (D is wrong).
Q8: A nurse witnesses a medication error involving a wrong dose of insulin administered to a patient. Which action by the
nurse is most appropriate?
A. Document the error in the patient medical record and continue monitoring
