NUR210 Exam 1 - Principles of Pharmacology (2026/2027) Galen College of Nursing
NUR210 / NUR 210 Exam 1 (Latest )
Principles of Pharmacology — Galen College of Nursing
Comprehensive Examination • 50 Verified Questions • Revised Correct Answers • A+ Guarantee
Course: NUR210 - Principles of Pharmacology Total Questions: 50
Institution: Galen College of Nursing Cognitive Mix: 30% Recall / 50% Application / 20% Analysis
Term: Question Style: 70% Scenario / 25% Direct / 5% Clinical
Section 1: Foundational Concepts in Pharmacology (Drug Nomenclature, Drug
Classifications, FDA Regulation, & Legal/Ethical Issues)
Q1. A pharmacist describes a medication to a nursing student as "N-acetyl-para-aminophenol." Which type
of drug nomenclature does this name represent?
A. Generic name
B. Brand (trade) name
C. Chemical name [CORRECT]
D. Therapeutic classification
Correct Answer: C — Chemical name
Rationale:
The chemical name describes the drug's exact molecular and atomic structure using standard chemical nomenclature, and
N-acetyl-para-aminophenol is the chemical name for acetaminophen. The generic name (acetaminophen) is the official
nonproprietary name assigned by the United States Adopted Names (USAN) council and is the same in every country. The
brand or trade name (Tylenol) is the proprietary, capitalized name owned by a specific manufacturer. A therapeutic
classification (e.g., analgesic, antipyretic) describes the drug's clinical effect rather than its identity. Galen NUR210
emphasizes that nurses must distinguish these names because orders may use any of the three, and the generic name is the
safest identifier for verification against a drug reference.
Q2. A patient states, "I asked the pharmacy for the generic version of my blood pressure medication because
it's cheaper, but my friend said brand-name drugs work better." Which statement by the nurse reflects
correct understanding of bioequivalence?
A. "Generic drugs contain different active ingredients, so they may not work as well."
B. "The FDA requires generic drugs to have the same active ingredient, strength, route, and
bioequivalence as the brand-name drug." [CORRECT]
C. "Generic drugs are always less potent because they are manufactured overseas."
D. "Brand-name drugs are safer because they undergo more testing than generics."
Correct Answer: B — "The FDA requires generic drugs to have the same active ingredient, strength, route,
and bioequivalence as the brand-name drug."
Rationale:
The FDA requires that an approved generic contain the same active ingredient, dosage form, strength, route of
administration, and bioequivalence (typically 80%-125% of the brand's pharmacokinetic profile) as the reference listed
drug. Generic manufacturers must demonstrate bioequivalence through pharmacokinetic studies but do not need to repeat
animal or clinical efficacy trials, which lowers cost. Differences between generic and brand products are limited to inactive
Page 1
,NUR210 Exam 1 - Principles of Pharmacology (2026/2027) Galen College of Nursing
ingredients (binders, colorants, flavorings), which rarely affect therapeutic outcome except in patients with specific
excipient allergies. The lower cost of generics reflects reduced research and development expenses, not inferior quality. For
narrow therapeutic index drugs such as warfarin, phenytoin, or levothyroxine, the FDA and many clinicians recommend
against frequent switching between brand and generic formulations to avoid clinically significant fluctuations in serum
levels.
Q3. A nurse is reviewing a patient's medication list and notes that one drug is classified as an "ACE inhibitor"
while another is classified as an "antihypertensive." What is the key difference between these two
classification approaches?
A. ACE inhibitor is a therapeutic classification; antihypertensive is a mechanistic classification.
B. ACE inhibitor is a mechanistic (mechanism of action) classification; antihypertensive is a therapeutic
classification. [CORRECT]
C. Both are therapeutic classifications based on the clinical condition treated.
D. Both are chemical classifications based on molecular structure.
Correct Answer: B — ACE inhibitor is a mechanistic (mechanism of action) classification; antihypertensive is
a therapeutic classification.
Rationale:
Drug classifications can be organized along two main axes. A therapeutic classification, such as antihypertensive, antibiotic,
or analgesic, groups drugs by the clinical condition they treat or the desired therapeutic effect. A mechanistic (mechanism of
action) classification, such as ACE inhibitor, beta-blocker, or proton-pump inhibitor, groups drugs by the specific
biochemical or physiological pathway they alter. A single drug can carry both labels - lisinopril is both an antihypertensive
(therapeutic) and an ACE inhibitor (mechanistic). Understanding both systems allows the nurse to anticipate therapeutic
effects, predict adverse effects, and recognize drugs that share toxicity profiles even when their therapeutic labels differ.
This dual classification framework is a core competency in the Galen NUR210 pharmacology curriculum.
Q4. A pharmaceutical company is beginning clinical trials on a new antihypertensive drug. The current phase
involves a small group of patients who actually have hypertension to evaluate whether the drug lowers blood
pressure and to identify common short-term side effects. Which phase of FDA approval does this scenario
describe?
A. Phase 1
B. Phase 2 [CORRECT]
C. Phase 3
D. Phase 4
Correct Answer: B — Phase 2
Rationale:
Phase 2 trials enroll a small group of patients (typically 100-300) who actually have the target disease to evaluate drug
efficacy, determine optimal dosing, and identify common short-term adverse effects. Phase 1 trials enroll healthy volunteers
(20-80 people) primarily to assess safety, pharmacokinetics, and a safe dosage range. Phase 3 trials are large-scale
(hundreds to thousands of patients) and compare the new drug against standard treatments or placebo to confirm efficacy
and detect less common adverse effects; this is the phase that immediately precedes FDA approval. Phase 4 trials occur after
FDA approval and involve post-marketing surveillance to detect rare or long-term adverse effects that were not apparent in
earlier phases. Nurses should understand this progression because post-marketing surveillance (Phase 4) is when nurses'
vigilance in reporting adverse drug reactions contributes directly to drug safety.
Page 2
, NUR210 Exam 1 - Principles of Pharmacology (2026/2027) Galen College of Nursing
Q5. A pregnant patient at 10 weeks' gestation is prescribed a medication classified as FDA Pregnancy
Category X. What is the most appropriate nursing action?
A. Administer the medication as ordered because pregnancy categories are only guidelines.
B. Hold the medication and immediately notify the prescribing provider, because Category X drugs are
contraindicated in pregnancy due to demonstrated fetal risk." [CORRECT]
C. Administer a half dose and monitor the patient closely for adverse effects.
D. Administer the medication only if the patient signs an informed consent waiver.
Correct Answer: B — Hold the medication and immediately notify the prescribing provider, because
Category X drugs are contraindicated in pregnancy due to demonstrated fetal risk."
Rationale:
FDA Pregnancy Category X identifies drugs for which studies in animals or humans, or human experience, have
demonstrated fetal abnormalities or fetal risk that clearly outweighs any possible benefit. Category X medications (e.g.,
isotretinoin, warfarin, methotrexate, finasteride) are absolutely contraindicated in pregnant patients and in any woman who
may become pregnant. The nurse must hold the medication, document the hold, and immediately contact the prescribing
provider for an alternative therapy. Categories A (safe), B (no risk in animal studies, no human data), C (risk cannot be ruled
out), and D (positive evidence of risk but benefits may outweigh) form the legacy alphabet system. Although the FDA has
transitioned to the Pregnancy and Lactation Labeling Rule (PLLR) format, Galen NUR210 still teaches the alphabet
categories because they remain widely used in references and on existing labels. Informed consent does not override
Category X contraindication.
Q6. A patient is prescribed morphine sulfate for postoperative pain. Under which DEA Controlled Substances
Schedule is morphine classified, and what does this classification indicate about its abuse potential?
A. Schedule I - no accepted medical use and high abuse potential.
B. Schedule II - accepted medical use with high abuse potential; prescriptions cannot be refilled.
[CORRECT]
C. Schedule III - accepted medical use with moderate abuse potential; refills allowed up to 5 times.
D. Schedule IV - accepted medical use with low abuse potential.
Correct Answer: B — Schedule II - accepted medical use with high abuse potential; prescriptions cannot be
refilled.
Rationale:
Morphine, oxycodone, hydromorphone, fentanyl, methadone, and most other strong opioids are Schedule II under the
Controlled Substances Act. Schedule II drugs have a currently accepted medical use but a high potential for severe
psychological or physical dependence; federal law prohibits telephone refills, and prescriptions must be a written or
electronic order from a provider (no "CII" refills permitted). Schedule I drugs (heroin, LSD, ecstasy) have no accepted
medical use and cannot be prescribed. Schedule III drugs (e.g., combination codeine products with <90 mg codeine per
dose, anabolic steroids, ketamine) have moderate abuse potential and allow up to five refills in six months. Schedule IV
drugs (alprazolam, diazepam, lorazepam, tramadol, modafinil) have lower abuse potential. Schedule V (cough preparations
with <200 mg codeine per 100 mL, pregabalin, lacosamide) has the lowest abuse potential. The nurse administering a
Schedule II drug must perform a controlled-substance count with a second nurse and waste any unused portion with a
witness.
Q7. A patient is prescribed alprazolam (Xanax) for anxiety. The nurse recognizes that this medication belongs
to which DEA schedule, and what distinguishing feature applies?
A. Schedule II - requires a new prescription for each fill and no refills.
B. Schedule III - moderate abuse potential, up to 5 refills in 6 months.
Page 3
NUR210 / NUR 210 Exam 1 (Latest )
Principles of Pharmacology — Galen College of Nursing
Comprehensive Examination • 50 Verified Questions • Revised Correct Answers • A+ Guarantee
Course: NUR210 - Principles of Pharmacology Total Questions: 50
Institution: Galen College of Nursing Cognitive Mix: 30% Recall / 50% Application / 20% Analysis
Term: Question Style: 70% Scenario / 25% Direct / 5% Clinical
Section 1: Foundational Concepts in Pharmacology (Drug Nomenclature, Drug
Classifications, FDA Regulation, & Legal/Ethical Issues)
Q1. A pharmacist describes a medication to a nursing student as "N-acetyl-para-aminophenol." Which type
of drug nomenclature does this name represent?
A. Generic name
B. Brand (trade) name
C. Chemical name [CORRECT]
D. Therapeutic classification
Correct Answer: C — Chemical name
Rationale:
The chemical name describes the drug's exact molecular and atomic structure using standard chemical nomenclature, and
N-acetyl-para-aminophenol is the chemical name for acetaminophen. The generic name (acetaminophen) is the official
nonproprietary name assigned by the United States Adopted Names (USAN) council and is the same in every country. The
brand or trade name (Tylenol) is the proprietary, capitalized name owned by a specific manufacturer. A therapeutic
classification (e.g., analgesic, antipyretic) describes the drug's clinical effect rather than its identity. Galen NUR210
emphasizes that nurses must distinguish these names because orders may use any of the three, and the generic name is the
safest identifier for verification against a drug reference.
Q2. A patient states, "I asked the pharmacy for the generic version of my blood pressure medication because
it's cheaper, but my friend said brand-name drugs work better." Which statement by the nurse reflects
correct understanding of bioequivalence?
A. "Generic drugs contain different active ingredients, so they may not work as well."
B. "The FDA requires generic drugs to have the same active ingredient, strength, route, and
bioequivalence as the brand-name drug." [CORRECT]
C. "Generic drugs are always less potent because they are manufactured overseas."
D. "Brand-name drugs are safer because they undergo more testing than generics."
Correct Answer: B — "The FDA requires generic drugs to have the same active ingredient, strength, route,
and bioequivalence as the brand-name drug."
Rationale:
The FDA requires that an approved generic contain the same active ingredient, dosage form, strength, route of
administration, and bioequivalence (typically 80%-125% of the brand's pharmacokinetic profile) as the reference listed
drug. Generic manufacturers must demonstrate bioequivalence through pharmacokinetic studies but do not need to repeat
animal or clinical efficacy trials, which lowers cost. Differences between generic and brand products are limited to inactive
Page 1
,NUR210 Exam 1 - Principles of Pharmacology (2026/2027) Galen College of Nursing
ingredients (binders, colorants, flavorings), which rarely affect therapeutic outcome except in patients with specific
excipient allergies. The lower cost of generics reflects reduced research and development expenses, not inferior quality. For
narrow therapeutic index drugs such as warfarin, phenytoin, or levothyroxine, the FDA and many clinicians recommend
against frequent switching between brand and generic formulations to avoid clinically significant fluctuations in serum
levels.
Q3. A nurse is reviewing a patient's medication list and notes that one drug is classified as an "ACE inhibitor"
while another is classified as an "antihypertensive." What is the key difference between these two
classification approaches?
A. ACE inhibitor is a therapeutic classification; antihypertensive is a mechanistic classification.
B. ACE inhibitor is a mechanistic (mechanism of action) classification; antihypertensive is a therapeutic
classification. [CORRECT]
C. Both are therapeutic classifications based on the clinical condition treated.
D. Both are chemical classifications based on molecular structure.
Correct Answer: B — ACE inhibitor is a mechanistic (mechanism of action) classification; antihypertensive is
a therapeutic classification.
Rationale:
Drug classifications can be organized along two main axes. A therapeutic classification, such as antihypertensive, antibiotic,
or analgesic, groups drugs by the clinical condition they treat or the desired therapeutic effect. A mechanistic (mechanism of
action) classification, such as ACE inhibitor, beta-blocker, or proton-pump inhibitor, groups drugs by the specific
biochemical or physiological pathway they alter. A single drug can carry both labels - lisinopril is both an antihypertensive
(therapeutic) and an ACE inhibitor (mechanistic). Understanding both systems allows the nurse to anticipate therapeutic
effects, predict adverse effects, and recognize drugs that share toxicity profiles even when their therapeutic labels differ.
This dual classification framework is a core competency in the Galen NUR210 pharmacology curriculum.
Q4. A pharmaceutical company is beginning clinical trials on a new antihypertensive drug. The current phase
involves a small group of patients who actually have hypertension to evaluate whether the drug lowers blood
pressure and to identify common short-term side effects. Which phase of FDA approval does this scenario
describe?
A. Phase 1
B. Phase 2 [CORRECT]
C. Phase 3
D. Phase 4
Correct Answer: B — Phase 2
Rationale:
Phase 2 trials enroll a small group of patients (typically 100-300) who actually have the target disease to evaluate drug
efficacy, determine optimal dosing, and identify common short-term adverse effects. Phase 1 trials enroll healthy volunteers
(20-80 people) primarily to assess safety, pharmacokinetics, and a safe dosage range. Phase 3 trials are large-scale
(hundreds to thousands of patients) and compare the new drug against standard treatments or placebo to confirm efficacy
and detect less common adverse effects; this is the phase that immediately precedes FDA approval. Phase 4 trials occur after
FDA approval and involve post-marketing surveillance to detect rare or long-term adverse effects that were not apparent in
earlier phases. Nurses should understand this progression because post-marketing surveillance (Phase 4) is when nurses'
vigilance in reporting adverse drug reactions contributes directly to drug safety.
Page 2
, NUR210 Exam 1 - Principles of Pharmacology (2026/2027) Galen College of Nursing
Q5. A pregnant patient at 10 weeks' gestation is prescribed a medication classified as FDA Pregnancy
Category X. What is the most appropriate nursing action?
A. Administer the medication as ordered because pregnancy categories are only guidelines.
B. Hold the medication and immediately notify the prescribing provider, because Category X drugs are
contraindicated in pregnancy due to demonstrated fetal risk." [CORRECT]
C. Administer a half dose and monitor the patient closely for adverse effects.
D. Administer the medication only if the patient signs an informed consent waiver.
Correct Answer: B — Hold the medication and immediately notify the prescribing provider, because
Category X drugs are contraindicated in pregnancy due to demonstrated fetal risk."
Rationale:
FDA Pregnancy Category X identifies drugs for which studies in animals or humans, or human experience, have
demonstrated fetal abnormalities or fetal risk that clearly outweighs any possible benefit. Category X medications (e.g.,
isotretinoin, warfarin, methotrexate, finasteride) are absolutely contraindicated in pregnant patients and in any woman who
may become pregnant. The nurse must hold the medication, document the hold, and immediately contact the prescribing
provider for an alternative therapy. Categories A (safe), B (no risk in animal studies, no human data), C (risk cannot be ruled
out), and D (positive evidence of risk but benefits may outweigh) form the legacy alphabet system. Although the FDA has
transitioned to the Pregnancy and Lactation Labeling Rule (PLLR) format, Galen NUR210 still teaches the alphabet
categories because they remain widely used in references and on existing labels. Informed consent does not override
Category X contraindication.
Q6. A patient is prescribed morphine sulfate for postoperative pain. Under which DEA Controlled Substances
Schedule is morphine classified, and what does this classification indicate about its abuse potential?
A. Schedule I - no accepted medical use and high abuse potential.
B. Schedule II - accepted medical use with high abuse potential; prescriptions cannot be refilled.
[CORRECT]
C. Schedule III - accepted medical use with moderate abuse potential; refills allowed up to 5 times.
D. Schedule IV - accepted medical use with low abuse potential.
Correct Answer: B — Schedule II - accepted medical use with high abuse potential; prescriptions cannot be
refilled.
Rationale:
Morphine, oxycodone, hydromorphone, fentanyl, methadone, and most other strong opioids are Schedule II under the
Controlled Substances Act. Schedule II drugs have a currently accepted medical use but a high potential for severe
psychological or physical dependence; federal law prohibits telephone refills, and prescriptions must be a written or
electronic order from a provider (no "CII" refills permitted). Schedule I drugs (heroin, LSD, ecstasy) have no accepted
medical use and cannot be prescribed. Schedule III drugs (e.g., combination codeine products with <90 mg codeine per
dose, anabolic steroids, ketamine) have moderate abuse potential and allow up to five refills in six months. Schedule IV
drugs (alprazolam, diazepam, lorazepam, tramadol, modafinil) have lower abuse potential. Schedule V (cough preparations
with <200 mg codeine per 100 mL, pregabalin, lacosamide) has the lowest abuse potential. The nurse administering a
Schedule II drug must perform a controlled-substance count with a second nurse and waste any unused portion with a
witness.
Q7. A patient is prescribed alprazolam (Xanax) for anxiety. The nurse recognizes that this medication belongs
to which DEA schedule, and what distinguishing feature applies?
A. Schedule II - requires a new prescription for each fill and no refills.
B. Schedule III - moderate abuse potential, up to 5 refills in 6 months.
Page 3
