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Examen

ABRET Performing Study Ultimate Exam

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The ABRET Performing Study Ultimate Exam is designed to strengthen practical competencies required for conducting neurodiagnostic studies. Topics include patient preparation, electrode application, data collection procedures, artifact reduction, monitoring protocols, infection control, quality assurance, safety standards, and documentation requirements. Candidates learn best practices for obtaining accurate and reliable diagnostic results while maintaining patient comfort and adhering to professional guidelines.

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ABRET Performing Study Ultimate Exam
**Question 1.** Which element of the patient interview is most critical for correlating seizure semiology
with EEG findings?

A) Last meal time

B) Duration of aura

C) Family history of migraines

D) Patient’s occupation



Answer: B

Explanation: The duration and characteristics of the aura provide direct clues about the seizure onset
zone, aiding EEG interpretation.



**Question 2.** A 7-year-old child presents with frequent staring spells and 3-Hz generalized
spike-and-slow-wave discharges. Which epilepsy syndrome is most likely?

A) Juvenile Myoclonic Epilepsy (JME)

B) Childhood Absence Epilepsy (CAE)

C) West Syndrome

D) Lennox-Gastaut Syndrome



Answer: B

Explanation: CAE is characterized by brief absence seizures and classic 3-Hz generalized
spike-and-slow-wave activity.



**Question 3.** Which medication class is most likely to produce generalized slowing on the EEG
background?

A) Sodium channel blockers

B) Benzodiazepines

C) Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors

D) Glutamate antagonists



Answer: B

, ABRET Performing Study Ultimate Exam
Explanation: Benzodiazepines enhance GABA inhibition, often resulting in diffuse background slowing.



**Question 4.** In the International 10-20 system, the electrode site “T3” is located over which
anatomical region?

A) Frontal pole

B) Temporal lobe, anterior to the ear

C) Parietal region, midline

D) Occipital lobe



Answer: B

Explanation: T3 (now renamed T7) lies on the left temporal region anterior to the ear.



**Question 5.** Which of the following best describes the principle of Common Mode Rejection Ratio
(CMRR) in differential amplifiers?

A) Ability to amplify high-frequency noise

B) Ratio of signal gain to common-mode gain

C) Measure of electrode impedance stability

D) Frequency response of the low-pass filter



Answer: B

Explanation: CMRR quantifies how well the amplifier rejects signals common to both inputs, preserving
true differential EEG activity.



**Question 6.** According to the Nyquist theorem, what minimum sampling rate is required to
accurately record a 70 Hz EEG activity?

A) 70 Hz

B) 140 Hz

C) 200 Hz

D) 350 Hz

, ABRET Performing Study Ultimate Exam
Answer: B

Explanation: The sampling rate must be at least twice the highest frequency of interest;
2 × 70 Hz = 140 Hz.



**Question 7.** A patient’s EEG shows a sudden, rhythmic 2-Hz delta activity that is maximal over the
left frontal leads and reverses polarity at F3-F4. This pattern most likely represents:

A) Focal slowing due to a left frontal lesion

B) Generalized rhythmic delta activity (GRDA) of metabolic encephalopathy

C) Phase reversal indicating the seizure focus at F3

D) Artifact from eye movement



Answer: C

Explanation: Phase reversal in a bipolar montage pinpoints the source of the rhythmic activity; here the
focus is near F3.



**Question 8.** Which activation procedure is contraindicated in a patient with recent myocardial
infarction?

A) Photic stimulation

B) Hyperventilation

C) Sleep deprivation

D) Auditory stimulation



Answer: B

Explanation: Hyperventilation can cause hypoxia and exacerbate cardiac stress, thus contraindicated
after MI.



**Question 9.** During EEG recording, the presence of 14 Hz positive spikes (14 Hz PPS) is considered a
normal variant. Which brain region are they most commonly seen over?

A) Occipital region

B) Central region (Cz)

C) Temporal region

, ABRET Performing Study Ultimate Exam
D) Frontal region



Answer: B

Explanation: 14 Hz PPS are typically observed at the central electrode Cz in healthy individuals.



**Question 10.** Which of the following artifacts is most likely produced by a patient’s tongue
movement?

A) Glossokinetic artifact

B) EMG artifact

C) Pulse artifact

D) 60 Hz line noise



Answer: A

Explanation: Glossokinetic artifacts arise from tongue motion and appear as rhythmic, high-frequency
waveforms.



**Question 11.** In a referential montage using an average reference, a spike-and-slow-wave complex
appears largest at Fp2. What does this suggest about the underlying focus?

A) Midline frontal focus

B) Right frontal focus

C) Left temporal focus

D) Bilateral occipital focus



Answer: B

Explanation: The highest amplitude in a referential montage points to the region nearest the generator;
here, right frontal (Fp2).



**Question 12.** Which of the following is a hallmark EEG pattern of West Syndrome?

A) Hypsarrhythmia

B) 3-Hz generalized spike-and-slow-wave

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Subido en
8 de julio de 2026
Número de páginas
54
Escrito en
2025/2026
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Examen
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