ABRET Electroencephalography EEG Ultimate Exam
**Question 1.** Which of the following components of the patient’s history is most critical for selecting
appropriate EEG activation procedures?
A) Family history of migraines
B) Recent use of anticonvulsant medication
C) History of hypertension
D) Past surgical removal of a molar
Answer: B
Explanation: Anticonvulsant drugs can suppress epileptiform activity; knowing their use helps decide
whether hyperventilation or photic stimulation will be effective.
**Question 2.** In the International 10-20 system, the electrode labeled “Fp2” is located over which
cortical region?
A) Left frontal pole
B) Right frontal pole
C) Left parietal lobe
D) Right occipital lobe
Answer: B
Explanation: “Fp” denotes frontal-polar; an odd number (1) is left, even (2) is right. Thus Fp2 is the right
frontal-polar electrode.
**Question 3.** Which of the following electrode materials provides the lowest half-cell potential and
therefore the most stable baseline?
A) Gold
B) Silver/silver-chloride (Ag/AgCl)
C) Tin
D) Copper
, ABRET Electroencephalography EEG Ultimate Exam
Answer: B
Explanation: Ag/AgCl electrodes have a stable half-cell potential close to the body’s ionic equilibrium,
minimizing drift compared with gold or tin.
**Question 4.** A high Common Mode Rejection Ratio (CMRR) in a differential amplifier primarily
protects the EEG from which type of interference?
A) Thermal noise from the patient’s scalp
B) Power-line (mains) noise common to both inputs
C) Muscle (EMG) artifact
D) Low-frequency drift
Answer: B
Explanation: CMRR quantifies the ability to reject signals that appear equally on both inputs, such as
50/60 Hz mains interference.
**Question 5.** When setting the high-pass filter at 0.5 Hz, which EEG component is most likely to be
attenuated?
A) Beta activity (13-30 Hz)
B) Alpha rhythm (8-13 Hz)
C) Delta waves (0.5-4 Hz)
D) Gamma activity (>30 Hz)
Answer: C
Explanation: A 0.5 Hz high-pass filter begins to reduce power below its cutoff; delta activity, especially
the slower portions, will be diminished.
**Question 6.** According to the Nyquist theorem, a sampling rate of 250 Hz can accurately record EEG
frequencies up to:
A) 125 Hz
B) 250 Hz
C) 500 Hz
, ABRET Electroencephalography EEG Ultimate Exam
D) 62.5 Hz
Answer: A
Explanation: Nyquist states that the maximum recordable frequency is half the sampling rate; thus
250 Hz sampling allows accurate capture up to 125 Hz.
**Question 7.** Which montage is most useful for detecting focal temporal spikes that are not evident
on a standard bipolar montage?
A) Longitudinal bipolar (C3-C4)
B) Referential with a linked-ear reference
C) Average reference montage
D) Laplacian montage
Answer: C
Explanation: An average reference reduces the influence of distant activity and enhances focal signals,
making temporal spikes more visible than in bipolar montages.
**Question 8.** During a routine EEG, a patient exhibits a 3 Hz spike-and-wave pattern that is maximal
at the frontal electrodes and attenuates posteriorly. What is the most likely clinical diagnosis?
A) Juvenile Myoclonic Epilepsy
B) Absence epilepsy
C) Temporal lobe epilepsy
D) Lennox-Gastaut syndrome
Answer: B
Explanation: Classic generalized 3 Hz spike-and-wave discharges are the hallmark of typical absence
seizures.
**Question 9.** Which of the following is a contraindication for hyperventilation as an activation
procedure?
A) Uncontrolled hypertension
, ABRET Electroencephalography EEG Ultimate Exam
B) Recent ischemic stroke
C) Mild asthma
D) History of migraines
Answer: B
Explanation: Hyperventilation can reduce cerebral CO₂ and exacerbate ischemia; it is contraindicated in
recent stroke patients.
**Question 10.** In a neonate EEG, the “delta brush” pattern consists of:
A) High-frequency spikes riding on a slow delta wave
B) Sharp waves superimposed on a beta rhythm
C) Low-amplitude theta activity with occasional spikes
D) Continuous rhythmic theta activity
Answer: A
Explanation: Delta brushes are characteristic of premature newborns and consist of spindle-like fast
activity (12-14 Hz) superimposed on a slow delta background.
**Question 11.** Which of the following best describes a “phase reversal” on a longitudinal bipolar
montage?
A) Two adjacent electrodes show identical waveforms
B) The polarity of a wave changes between the two electrodes
C) The amplitude of the wave is doubled at the reference electrode
D) The waveform disappears on one side of the head
Answer: B
Explanation: A phase reversal indicates that the source of activity lies between the two electrodes,
causing opposite polarities.
**Question 1.** Which of the following components of the patient’s history is most critical for selecting
appropriate EEG activation procedures?
A) Family history of migraines
B) Recent use of anticonvulsant medication
C) History of hypertension
D) Past surgical removal of a molar
Answer: B
Explanation: Anticonvulsant drugs can suppress epileptiform activity; knowing their use helps decide
whether hyperventilation or photic stimulation will be effective.
**Question 2.** In the International 10-20 system, the electrode labeled “Fp2” is located over which
cortical region?
A) Left frontal pole
B) Right frontal pole
C) Left parietal lobe
D) Right occipital lobe
Answer: B
Explanation: “Fp” denotes frontal-polar; an odd number (1) is left, even (2) is right. Thus Fp2 is the right
frontal-polar electrode.
**Question 3.** Which of the following electrode materials provides the lowest half-cell potential and
therefore the most stable baseline?
A) Gold
B) Silver/silver-chloride (Ag/AgCl)
C) Tin
D) Copper
, ABRET Electroencephalography EEG Ultimate Exam
Answer: B
Explanation: Ag/AgCl electrodes have a stable half-cell potential close to the body’s ionic equilibrium,
minimizing drift compared with gold or tin.
**Question 4.** A high Common Mode Rejection Ratio (CMRR) in a differential amplifier primarily
protects the EEG from which type of interference?
A) Thermal noise from the patient’s scalp
B) Power-line (mains) noise common to both inputs
C) Muscle (EMG) artifact
D) Low-frequency drift
Answer: B
Explanation: CMRR quantifies the ability to reject signals that appear equally on both inputs, such as
50/60 Hz mains interference.
**Question 5.** When setting the high-pass filter at 0.5 Hz, which EEG component is most likely to be
attenuated?
A) Beta activity (13-30 Hz)
B) Alpha rhythm (8-13 Hz)
C) Delta waves (0.5-4 Hz)
D) Gamma activity (>30 Hz)
Answer: C
Explanation: A 0.5 Hz high-pass filter begins to reduce power below its cutoff; delta activity, especially
the slower portions, will be diminished.
**Question 6.** According to the Nyquist theorem, a sampling rate of 250 Hz can accurately record EEG
frequencies up to:
A) 125 Hz
B) 250 Hz
C) 500 Hz
, ABRET Electroencephalography EEG Ultimate Exam
D) 62.5 Hz
Answer: A
Explanation: Nyquist states that the maximum recordable frequency is half the sampling rate; thus
250 Hz sampling allows accurate capture up to 125 Hz.
**Question 7.** Which montage is most useful for detecting focal temporal spikes that are not evident
on a standard bipolar montage?
A) Longitudinal bipolar (C3-C4)
B) Referential with a linked-ear reference
C) Average reference montage
D) Laplacian montage
Answer: C
Explanation: An average reference reduces the influence of distant activity and enhances focal signals,
making temporal spikes more visible than in bipolar montages.
**Question 8.** During a routine EEG, a patient exhibits a 3 Hz spike-and-wave pattern that is maximal
at the frontal electrodes and attenuates posteriorly. What is the most likely clinical diagnosis?
A) Juvenile Myoclonic Epilepsy
B) Absence epilepsy
C) Temporal lobe epilepsy
D) Lennox-Gastaut syndrome
Answer: B
Explanation: Classic generalized 3 Hz spike-and-wave discharges are the hallmark of typical absence
seizures.
**Question 9.** Which of the following is a contraindication for hyperventilation as an activation
procedure?
A) Uncontrolled hypertension
, ABRET Electroencephalography EEG Ultimate Exam
B) Recent ischemic stroke
C) Mild asthma
D) History of migraines
Answer: B
Explanation: Hyperventilation can reduce cerebral CO₂ and exacerbate ischemia; it is contraindicated in
recent stroke patients.
**Question 10.** In a neonate EEG, the “delta brush” pattern consists of:
A) High-frequency spikes riding on a slow delta wave
B) Sharp waves superimposed on a beta rhythm
C) Low-amplitude theta activity with occasional spikes
D) Continuous rhythmic theta activity
Answer: A
Explanation: Delta brushes are characteristic of premature newborns and consist of spindle-like fast
activity (12-14 Hz) superimposed on a slow delta background.
**Question 11.** Which of the following best describes a “phase reversal” on a longitudinal bipolar
montage?
A) Two adjacent electrodes show identical waveforms
B) The polarity of a wave changes between the two electrodes
C) The amplitude of the wave is doubled at the reference electrode
D) The waveform disappears on one side of the head
Answer: B
Explanation: A phase reversal indicates that the source of activity lies between the two electrodes,
causing opposite polarities.
