WGU D444 Adult Health 1 Objective Assessment
OA V1 V2 Actual Exam 2026/2027 | Complete
Exam-Style Questions with Detailed Rationales |
Pass Guaranteed – A+ Graded
SECTION 1: CARDIOVASCULAR DISORDERS (40-50 Questions)
Q1: A patient with heart failure has an echocardiogram showing an ejection fraction of
35%. The nurse recognizes this finding indicates which condition?
A. Heart failure with preserved ejection fraction (HFpEF)
B. Heart failure with reduced ejection fraction (HFrEF) [CORRECT]
C. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
D. Dilated cardiomyopathy with normal function
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct because an ejection fraction of 35% is below the normal range of
55-70% and indicates reduced systolic function, which defines HFrEF per WGU D444
curriculum on heart failure classification.
Q2: A patient prescribed amlodipine reports flushing and headache after the first dose.
What is the nurse's best response?
A. Discontinue the medication immediately and notify the provider
B. Reassure the patient these are expected vasodilation effects that often improve with
time [CORRECT]
C. Administer a PRN analgesic and hold the next dose
D. Recommend switching to a beta-blocker instead
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct because amlodipine causes vasodilation leading to flushing and
headache, which are expected side effects that typically improve with continued use;
abrupt discontinuation is not recommended.
Q3: A patient taking clopidogrel calls the clinic reporting black, tarry stools. What is the
nurse's priority instruction?
,A. Increase fluid intake and monitor for 24 hours
B. Take an over-the-counter antacid
C. Notify the provider immediately as this indicates gastrointestinal bleeding [CORRECT]
D. Stop the medication and restart tomorrow
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Correct because black, tarry stools (melena) indicate upper gastrointestinal
bleeding, a serious adverse effect of antiplatelet therapy requiring immediate provider
notification.
Q4: Before administering digoxin, the nurse must assess the patient's apical pulse for
how long?
A. 15 seconds
B. 30 seconds
C. 1 full minute [CORRECT]
D. 2 full minutes
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Correct because digoxin has a narrow therapeutic range and risk of
bradycardia and dysrhythmias; the apical pulse must be assessed for 1 full minute, and
the dose held if pulse is less than 60 bpm.
Q5: A patient prescribed lisinopril asks about foods to avoid. The nurse should
emphasize monitoring for which electrolyte imbalance?
A. Hyponatremia
B. Hyperkalemia [CORRECT]
C. Hypocalcemia
D. Hypernatremia
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct because ACE inhibitors such as lisinopril reduce aldosterone
secretion, which decreases potassium excretion and increases the risk of hyperkalemia.
Q6: A patient arrives in the emergency department with chest pain. The EKG shows
ST-segment elevation in leads V1-V4. The nurse recognizes this as which condition?
A. Non-ST elevation myocardial infarction (NSTEMI)
B. Unstable angina
C. Acute myocardial infarction (STEMI) indicating transmural ischemia [CORRECT]
D. Pericarditis
,Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Correct because ST-segment elevation is the hallmark EKG finding of STEMI,
indicating transmural ischemia requiring immediate intervention per ACLS guidelines.
Q7: Following a cardiac catheterization via the femoral artery, the nurse observes a
hematoma at the insertion site. What is the priority nursing action?
A. Apply a warm compress and elevate the leg
B. Document and continue routine monitoring
C. Apply firm pressure and notify the provider immediately as this indicates bleeding
[CORRECT]
D. Remove the dressing to assess the site
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Correct because a hematoma at the femoral insertion site indicates bleeding,
a serious complication requiring immediate pressure application and provider
notification.
Q8: A patient receiving heparin therapy requires monitoring of which laboratory value to
evaluate therapeutic effect?
A. Prothrombin time (PT)
B. International Normalized Ratio (INR)
C. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) [CORRECT]
D. Complete blood count (CBC)
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Correct because heparin therapy is monitored using aPTT to evaluate
therapeutic anticoagulation effect, with typical therapeutic ranges being 1.5-2.5 times
the control value.
Q9: A patient presents with acute coronary syndrome. According to the MONA protocol
and ACLS guidelines, which intervention is the priority first action?
A. Morphine
B. Oxygen
C. Nitroglycerin
D. Aspirin [CORRECT]
Correct Answer: D
, Rationale: Correct because per ACLS guidelines and the MONA protocol (Morphine,
Oxygen, Nitroglycerin, Aspirin), aspirin is the priority first action as it provides immediate
antiplatelet effects.
Q10: A patient's blood pressure is 210/120 mmHg with severe headache and blurred
vision. The nurse recognizes these findings indicate which condition?
A. Hypertensive urgency
B. Hypertensive crisis with target organ damage requiring immediate treatment
[CORRECT]
C. Primary hypertension
D. Orthostatic hypotension
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct because a blood pressure of 210/120 mmHg accompanied by severe
headache and blurred vision indicates target organ damage, defining a hypertensive
crisis requiring immediate treatment.
Q11: A patient reports cramping pain in the legs during walking that resolves with rest.
The nurse documents this finding as which condition?
A. Deep vein thrombosis
B. Intermittent claudication classic for peripheral artery disease (PAD) [CORRECT]
C. Peripheral neuropathy
D. Chronic venous insufficiency
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct because intermittent claudication is ischemic muscle pain with
exercise that resolves with rest, which is the classic presentation of peripheral artery
disease.
Q12: A patient with chronic venous insufficiency develops an ulcer. Where is this ulcer
most likely located?
A. Over the lateral malleolus
B. Over the medial malleolus (gaiter area) due to venous hypertension [CORRECT]
C. On the dorsum of the foot
D. Between the toes
Correct Answer: B
OA V1 V2 Actual Exam 2026/2027 | Complete
Exam-Style Questions with Detailed Rationales |
Pass Guaranteed – A+ Graded
SECTION 1: CARDIOVASCULAR DISORDERS (40-50 Questions)
Q1: A patient with heart failure has an echocardiogram showing an ejection fraction of
35%. The nurse recognizes this finding indicates which condition?
A. Heart failure with preserved ejection fraction (HFpEF)
B. Heart failure with reduced ejection fraction (HFrEF) [CORRECT]
C. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
D. Dilated cardiomyopathy with normal function
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct because an ejection fraction of 35% is below the normal range of
55-70% and indicates reduced systolic function, which defines HFrEF per WGU D444
curriculum on heart failure classification.
Q2: A patient prescribed amlodipine reports flushing and headache after the first dose.
What is the nurse's best response?
A. Discontinue the medication immediately and notify the provider
B. Reassure the patient these are expected vasodilation effects that often improve with
time [CORRECT]
C. Administer a PRN analgesic and hold the next dose
D. Recommend switching to a beta-blocker instead
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct because amlodipine causes vasodilation leading to flushing and
headache, which are expected side effects that typically improve with continued use;
abrupt discontinuation is not recommended.
Q3: A patient taking clopidogrel calls the clinic reporting black, tarry stools. What is the
nurse's priority instruction?
,A. Increase fluid intake and monitor for 24 hours
B. Take an over-the-counter antacid
C. Notify the provider immediately as this indicates gastrointestinal bleeding [CORRECT]
D. Stop the medication and restart tomorrow
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Correct because black, tarry stools (melena) indicate upper gastrointestinal
bleeding, a serious adverse effect of antiplatelet therapy requiring immediate provider
notification.
Q4: Before administering digoxin, the nurse must assess the patient's apical pulse for
how long?
A. 15 seconds
B. 30 seconds
C. 1 full minute [CORRECT]
D. 2 full minutes
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Correct because digoxin has a narrow therapeutic range and risk of
bradycardia and dysrhythmias; the apical pulse must be assessed for 1 full minute, and
the dose held if pulse is less than 60 bpm.
Q5: A patient prescribed lisinopril asks about foods to avoid. The nurse should
emphasize monitoring for which electrolyte imbalance?
A. Hyponatremia
B. Hyperkalemia [CORRECT]
C. Hypocalcemia
D. Hypernatremia
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct because ACE inhibitors such as lisinopril reduce aldosterone
secretion, which decreases potassium excretion and increases the risk of hyperkalemia.
Q6: A patient arrives in the emergency department with chest pain. The EKG shows
ST-segment elevation in leads V1-V4. The nurse recognizes this as which condition?
A. Non-ST elevation myocardial infarction (NSTEMI)
B. Unstable angina
C. Acute myocardial infarction (STEMI) indicating transmural ischemia [CORRECT]
D. Pericarditis
,Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Correct because ST-segment elevation is the hallmark EKG finding of STEMI,
indicating transmural ischemia requiring immediate intervention per ACLS guidelines.
Q7: Following a cardiac catheterization via the femoral artery, the nurse observes a
hematoma at the insertion site. What is the priority nursing action?
A. Apply a warm compress and elevate the leg
B. Document and continue routine monitoring
C. Apply firm pressure and notify the provider immediately as this indicates bleeding
[CORRECT]
D. Remove the dressing to assess the site
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Correct because a hematoma at the femoral insertion site indicates bleeding,
a serious complication requiring immediate pressure application and provider
notification.
Q8: A patient receiving heparin therapy requires monitoring of which laboratory value to
evaluate therapeutic effect?
A. Prothrombin time (PT)
B. International Normalized Ratio (INR)
C. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) [CORRECT]
D. Complete blood count (CBC)
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Correct because heparin therapy is monitored using aPTT to evaluate
therapeutic anticoagulation effect, with typical therapeutic ranges being 1.5-2.5 times
the control value.
Q9: A patient presents with acute coronary syndrome. According to the MONA protocol
and ACLS guidelines, which intervention is the priority first action?
A. Morphine
B. Oxygen
C. Nitroglycerin
D. Aspirin [CORRECT]
Correct Answer: D
, Rationale: Correct because per ACLS guidelines and the MONA protocol (Morphine,
Oxygen, Nitroglycerin, Aspirin), aspirin is the priority first action as it provides immediate
antiplatelet effects.
Q10: A patient's blood pressure is 210/120 mmHg with severe headache and blurred
vision. The nurse recognizes these findings indicate which condition?
A. Hypertensive urgency
B. Hypertensive crisis with target organ damage requiring immediate treatment
[CORRECT]
C. Primary hypertension
D. Orthostatic hypotension
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct because a blood pressure of 210/120 mmHg accompanied by severe
headache and blurred vision indicates target organ damage, defining a hypertensive
crisis requiring immediate treatment.
Q11: A patient reports cramping pain in the legs during walking that resolves with rest.
The nurse documents this finding as which condition?
A. Deep vein thrombosis
B. Intermittent claudication classic for peripheral artery disease (PAD) [CORRECT]
C. Peripheral neuropathy
D. Chronic venous insufficiency
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct because intermittent claudication is ischemic muscle pain with
exercise that resolves with rest, which is the classic presentation of peripheral artery
disease.
Q12: A patient with chronic venous insufficiency develops an ulcer. Where is this ulcer
most likely located?
A. Over the lateral malleolus
B. Over the medial malleolus (gaiter area) due to venous hypertension [CORRECT]
C. On the dorsum of the foot
D. Between the toes
Correct Answer: B
