WGU D027 OA Exam
Advanced
Psychopharmacology
Foundations Objective
Assessment Exam
Questions with Verified
Rationalized Answers
1. Which pharmacokinetic process primarily occurs in the liver?
A. Absorption
B. Distribution
C. Metabolism
D. Excretion
Answer: C. Metabolism
Rationale: Most medications undergo hepatic metabolism through the CYP450
enzyme system before elimination.
,2. A patient taking warfarin begins therapy with trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole.
What should the provider anticipate?
A. Decreased INR
B. Increased INR and bleeding risk
C. Reduced anticoagulation
D. No interaction
Answer: B
Rationale: TMP-SMX inhibits warfarin metabolism, increasing anticoagulant effects.
3. Which electrolyte imbalance is most likely to cause peaked T waves on an ECG?
A. Hyponatremia
B. Hypercalcemia
C. Hyperkalemia
D. Hypokalemia
Answer: C
Rationale: Hyperkalemia produces peaked T waves and may progress to fatal
dysrhythmias.
4. Which receptor does albuterol primarily stimulate?
,A. Alpha-1
B. Beta-1
C. Beta-2
D. Muscarinic
Answer: C
Rationale: Beta-2 receptor activation relaxes bronchial smooth muscle.
5. A patient has metabolic acidosis. Which ABG finding is expected?
A. pH 7.50
B. Elevated bicarbonate
C. pH below 7.35
D. Elevated PaCO₂
Answer: C
Rationale: Metabolic acidosis results in decreased blood pH.
6. ACE inhibitors lower blood pressure primarily by:
A. Increasing aldosterone
B. Blocking conversion of angiotensin I to II
, C. Stimulating renin release
D. Blocking calcium channels
Answer: B
7. Which medication is contraindicated during pregnancy because of fetal renal
toxicity?
A. Amoxicillin
B. Acetaminophen
C. Lisinopril
D. Insulin
Answer: C
8. Which insulin has the fastest onset?
A. NPH
B. Glargine
C. Lispro
D. Detemir
Answer: C
Advanced
Psychopharmacology
Foundations Objective
Assessment Exam
Questions with Verified
Rationalized Answers
1. Which pharmacokinetic process primarily occurs in the liver?
A. Absorption
B. Distribution
C. Metabolism
D. Excretion
Answer: C. Metabolism
Rationale: Most medications undergo hepatic metabolism through the CYP450
enzyme system before elimination.
,2. A patient taking warfarin begins therapy with trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole.
What should the provider anticipate?
A. Decreased INR
B. Increased INR and bleeding risk
C. Reduced anticoagulation
D. No interaction
Answer: B
Rationale: TMP-SMX inhibits warfarin metabolism, increasing anticoagulant effects.
3. Which electrolyte imbalance is most likely to cause peaked T waves on an ECG?
A. Hyponatremia
B. Hypercalcemia
C. Hyperkalemia
D. Hypokalemia
Answer: C
Rationale: Hyperkalemia produces peaked T waves and may progress to fatal
dysrhythmias.
4. Which receptor does albuterol primarily stimulate?
,A. Alpha-1
B. Beta-1
C. Beta-2
D. Muscarinic
Answer: C
Rationale: Beta-2 receptor activation relaxes bronchial smooth muscle.
5. A patient has metabolic acidosis. Which ABG finding is expected?
A. pH 7.50
B. Elevated bicarbonate
C. pH below 7.35
D. Elevated PaCO₂
Answer: C
Rationale: Metabolic acidosis results in decreased blood pH.
6. ACE inhibitors lower blood pressure primarily by:
A. Increasing aldosterone
B. Blocking conversion of angiotensin I to II
, C. Stimulating renin release
D. Blocking calcium channels
Answer: B
7. Which medication is contraindicated during pregnancy because of fetal renal
toxicity?
A. Amoxicillin
B. Acetaminophen
C. Lisinopril
D. Insulin
Answer: C
8. Which insulin has the fastest onset?
A. NPH
B. Glargine
C. Lispro
D. Detemir
Answer: C
