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MATERNITY HESI NEWEST 2026 ACTUAL EXAM TEST
BANK| RN HESI MATERNITY EXAM PREP WITH
COMPLETE 500 REAL EXAM QUESTIONS AND
CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS (VERIFIED
ANSWERS) ALREADY GRADED A+ (MOST RECENT!!)
A 26-year-old gravida 2, para 1, client is admitted to the hospital at 28
weeks of gestation in preterm labor. She is given three doses of
terbutaline sulfate (Brethine), 0.25 mg subcutaneously, to stop her labor
contractions. What are the primary side effects of terbutaline sulfate?
A. Drowsiness and paroxysmal bradycardia
B. Depressed reflexes and increased respirations
C. Tachycardia and a feeling of nervousness
D. A flushed warm feeling and dry mouth - Correct Answer - C.
Tachycardia and a feeling of nervousness
Terbutaline sulfate (Brethine), a beta-sympathomimetic drug, stimulates
beta-adrenergic receptors in the uterine muscle to stop contractions. The
beta-adrenergic agonist properties of the drug may cause tachycardia,
increased cardiac output, restlessness, headache, and a feeling of
nervousness.
Twenty minutes after a continuous epidural anesthetic is administered, a
laboring client's blood pressure drops from 120/80 to 90/60 mm Hg.
Which action should the nurse take immediately?
A. Notify the health care provider or anesthesiologist.
B. Continue to assess the blood pressure every 5 minutes.
C. Place the client in a lateral position.
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D. Turn off the continuous epidural. - Correct Answer - C. Place the
client in a lateral position.
The nurse should immediately turn the client to a lateral position or
place a pillow or wedge under one hip to deflect the uterus. Other
immediate interventions include increasing the rate of the main line IV
infusion and administering oxygen by facemask. If the blood pressure
remains low after these interventions or decreases further, the
anesthesiologist or health care provider should be notified immediately.
To continue to monitor blood pressure without taking further action
could constitute malpractice.
A 41-week multigravida is receiving oxytocin (Pitocin) to augment
labor. Contractions are firm and occurring every 5 minutes, with a 30- to
40-second duration. The fetal heart rate increases with each contraction
and returns to baseline after the contraction. Which action should the
nurse implement?
A.Place a wedge under the client's left side.
B. Determine cervical dilation and effacement.
C.Administer 10 L of oxygen via facemask.
D.Increase the rate of the oxytocin (Pitocin) infusion. - Correct Answer -
B. Determine cervical dilation and effacement.
The goal of labor augmentation is to produce firm contractions that
occur every 2 to 3 minutes, with a duration of 60 to 70 seconds, and
without evidence of fetal stress. FHR accelerations are a normal
response to contractions, so the oxytocin (Pitocin) infusion should be
increased per protocol to stimulate the frequency and intensity of
contractions.
The nurse is counseling a client who wants to become pregnant. She tells
the nurse that she has a 36-day menstrual cycle and the first day of her
last menstrual period was January 8. When will the client's next fertile
period occur?
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A.January 14 to 15
B.January 22 to 23
C. January 29 to 30
D.February 6 to 7 - Correct Answer - C. January 29 to 30
This client can expect her next period to begin 36 days from the first day
of her last menstrual period. Her next period would begin on February
12. Ovulation occurs 14 days before the first day of the menstrual
period. The client can expect ovulation to occur January 29 to 30.
A client who is 3 days postpartum and breastfeeding asks the nurse how
to reduce breast engorgement. Which instruction should the nurse
provide?
A.Avoid using the breast pump.
B. Breastfeed the infant every 2 hours.
C.Reduce fluid intake for 24 hours.
D.Skip feedings to let the sore breasts rest. - Correct Answer - B.
Breastfeed the infant every 2 hours.
The mother should be instructed to attempt feeding her infant every 2
hours while massaging the breasts as the infant is feeding. If the infant
does not feed adequately and empty the breast, using a breast pump
helps extract the milk and relieve some of the discomfort. Dehydration
irritates swollen breast tissue. Skipping feedings may cause further
engorgement and discomfort.
On admission to the prenatal clinic, a client tells the nurse that her last
menstrual period began on February 15 and that previously her periods
were regular (28-day cycle). Her pregnancy test is positive. What is this
client's expected date of birth (EDB)?
A. November 22
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B.November 8
C.December 22
D.October 22 - Correct Answer - A. November 22
Option A correctly applies the Nägele rule for estimating the due date by
counting back 3 months from the first day of the last menstrual period
(January, December, November) and adding 7 days (15 + 7 = 22).
A 25-year-old client has a positive pregnancy test. One year ago she had
a spontaneous abortion at 3 months of gestation. Which is the correct
description of this client that should be documented in the medical
record?
A.Gravida 1, para 0
B.Gravida 1, para 1
C. Gravida 2, para 0
D.Gravida 2, para 1 - Correct Answer - C.Gravida 2, para 0
This is the client's second pregnancy or second gravid event, so option C
is correct. The spontaneous abortion (miscarriage) occurred at 3 months
of gestation (12 weeks), so she is a para 0. Parity cannot be increased
unless delivery occurs at 20 weeks of gestation or beyond.
A newborn infant, diagnosed with developmental dysplasia of the hip
(DDH), is being prepared for discharge. Which nursing intervention
should be included in this infant's discharge teaching plan?
A. Observe the parents applying a Pavlik harness.
B.Provide a referral for an orthopedic surgeon.
C.Schedule a physical therapy follow-up home visit.
D.Teach the parents to check for hip joint mobility. - Correct Answer -
A. Observe the parents applying a Pavlik harness.
MATERNITY HESI NEWEST 2026 ACTUAL EXAM TEST
BANK| RN HESI MATERNITY EXAM PREP WITH
COMPLETE 500 REAL EXAM QUESTIONS AND
CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS (VERIFIED
ANSWERS) ALREADY GRADED A+ (MOST RECENT!!)
A 26-year-old gravida 2, para 1, client is admitted to the hospital at 28
weeks of gestation in preterm labor. She is given three doses of
terbutaline sulfate (Brethine), 0.25 mg subcutaneously, to stop her labor
contractions. What are the primary side effects of terbutaline sulfate?
A. Drowsiness and paroxysmal bradycardia
B. Depressed reflexes and increased respirations
C. Tachycardia and a feeling of nervousness
D. A flushed warm feeling and dry mouth - Correct Answer - C.
Tachycardia and a feeling of nervousness
Terbutaline sulfate (Brethine), a beta-sympathomimetic drug, stimulates
beta-adrenergic receptors in the uterine muscle to stop contractions. The
beta-adrenergic agonist properties of the drug may cause tachycardia,
increased cardiac output, restlessness, headache, and a feeling of
nervousness.
Twenty minutes after a continuous epidural anesthetic is administered, a
laboring client's blood pressure drops from 120/80 to 90/60 mm Hg.
Which action should the nurse take immediately?
A. Notify the health care provider or anesthesiologist.
B. Continue to assess the blood pressure every 5 minutes.
C. Place the client in a lateral position.
,2|Page
D. Turn off the continuous epidural. - Correct Answer - C. Place the
client in a lateral position.
The nurse should immediately turn the client to a lateral position or
place a pillow or wedge under one hip to deflect the uterus. Other
immediate interventions include increasing the rate of the main line IV
infusion and administering oxygen by facemask. If the blood pressure
remains low after these interventions or decreases further, the
anesthesiologist or health care provider should be notified immediately.
To continue to monitor blood pressure without taking further action
could constitute malpractice.
A 41-week multigravida is receiving oxytocin (Pitocin) to augment
labor. Contractions are firm and occurring every 5 minutes, with a 30- to
40-second duration. The fetal heart rate increases with each contraction
and returns to baseline after the contraction. Which action should the
nurse implement?
A.Place a wedge under the client's left side.
B. Determine cervical dilation and effacement.
C.Administer 10 L of oxygen via facemask.
D.Increase the rate of the oxytocin (Pitocin) infusion. - Correct Answer -
B. Determine cervical dilation and effacement.
The goal of labor augmentation is to produce firm contractions that
occur every 2 to 3 minutes, with a duration of 60 to 70 seconds, and
without evidence of fetal stress. FHR accelerations are a normal
response to contractions, so the oxytocin (Pitocin) infusion should be
increased per protocol to stimulate the frequency and intensity of
contractions.
The nurse is counseling a client who wants to become pregnant. She tells
the nurse that she has a 36-day menstrual cycle and the first day of her
last menstrual period was January 8. When will the client's next fertile
period occur?
,3|Page
A.January 14 to 15
B.January 22 to 23
C. January 29 to 30
D.February 6 to 7 - Correct Answer - C. January 29 to 30
This client can expect her next period to begin 36 days from the first day
of her last menstrual period. Her next period would begin on February
12. Ovulation occurs 14 days before the first day of the menstrual
period. The client can expect ovulation to occur January 29 to 30.
A client who is 3 days postpartum and breastfeeding asks the nurse how
to reduce breast engorgement. Which instruction should the nurse
provide?
A.Avoid using the breast pump.
B. Breastfeed the infant every 2 hours.
C.Reduce fluid intake for 24 hours.
D.Skip feedings to let the sore breasts rest. - Correct Answer - B.
Breastfeed the infant every 2 hours.
The mother should be instructed to attempt feeding her infant every 2
hours while massaging the breasts as the infant is feeding. If the infant
does not feed adequately and empty the breast, using a breast pump
helps extract the milk and relieve some of the discomfort. Dehydration
irritates swollen breast tissue. Skipping feedings may cause further
engorgement and discomfort.
On admission to the prenatal clinic, a client tells the nurse that her last
menstrual period began on February 15 and that previously her periods
were regular (28-day cycle). Her pregnancy test is positive. What is this
client's expected date of birth (EDB)?
A. November 22
, 4|Page
B.November 8
C.December 22
D.October 22 - Correct Answer - A. November 22
Option A correctly applies the Nägele rule for estimating the due date by
counting back 3 months from the first day of the last menstrual period
(January, December, November) and adding 7 days (15 + 7 = 22).
A 25-year-old client has a positive pregnancy test. One year ago she had
a spontaneous abortion at 3 months of gestation. Which is the correct
description of this client that should be documented in the medical
record?
A.Gravida 1, para 0
B.Gravida 1, para 1
C. Gravida 2, para 0
D.Gravida 2, para 1 - Correct Answer - C.Gravida 2, para 0
This is the client's second pregnancy or second gravid event, so option C
is correct. The spontaneous abortion (miscarriage) occurred at 3 months
of gestation (12 weeks), so she is a para 0. Parity cannot be increased
unless delivery occurs at 20 weeks of gestation or beyond.
A newborn infant, diagnosed with developmental dysplasia of the hip
(DDH), is being prepared for discharge. Which nursing intervention
should be included in this infant's discharge teaching plan?
A. Observe the parents applying a Pavlik harness.
B.Provide a referral for an orthopedic surgeon.
C.Schedule a physical therapy follow-up home visit.
D.Teach the parents to check for hip joint mobility. - Correct Answer -
A. Observe the parents applying a Pavlik harness.
