RNC-MNN COMPLETE EXAM QUESTIONS AND VERIFIED
ANSWERS | 2026–2027 LATEST UPDATE | GUARANTEED
PASS | DETAILED RATIONALES | FULL STUDY GUIDE | EXAM
PREP | PRACTICE TEST | CERTIFICATION PREPARATION
1. A newly certified RN is assigned to a medical-neurology unit. Which action best
demonstrates safe patient prioritization during an initial shift assessment?
A. Completing medication reconciliation for all assigned patients first
B. Performing a focused neurological assessment on a post-stroke patient
C. Documenting admission histories before physical assessments
D. Reviewing physician orders for upcoming discharges
Correct Answer: B. Performing a focused neurological assessment on a post-stroke patient
Rationale: Neurological conditions require time-sensitive assessment to detect deterioration
such as stroke progression or increased intracranial pressure. Medication reconciliation and
documentation are important but not immediately safety-critical. Prioritization focuses on
patient stability first.
2. A patient with suspected increased intracranial pressure (ICP) is being monitored. Which
finding requires immediate intervention?
A. Blood pressure 138/82 mmHg
B. Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score drop from 15 to 13
C. Mild headache rated 3/10
D. Slight restlessness after repositioning
Correct Answer: B. Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score drop from 15 to 13
Rationale: A declining GCS indicates neurological deterioration and possible rising ICP. Mild
headache and slight restlessness are expected findings, while blood pressure in this range is
not immediately alarming.
3. Which intervention is most appropriate for preventing aspiration in a patient with
dysphagia after stroke?
A. Providing thin liquids for easier swallowing
B. Keeping the patient supine during meals
C. Elevating head of bed to 90 degrees during feeding
D. Encouraging rapid feeding to reduce fatigue
Correct Answer: C. Elevating head of bed to 90 degrees during feeding
Rationale: Upright positioning reduces aspiration risk. Thin liquids and supine positioning
increase risk, while rapid feeding can overwhelm swallowing reflexes.
4. A nurse is reviewing seizure precautions. Which equipment is most essential at bedside?
A. Oxygen, suction setup, padded side rails
B. Defibrillator and IV vasopressors
C. Foley catheter kit and sterile gloves
D. Incentive spirometer and nebulizer
Correct Answer: A. Oxygen, suction setup, padded side rails
Rationale: Airway protection and injury prevention are priorities during seizures. Other
equipment is not immediately relevant to acute seizure management.
,5. A patient receiving mannitol therapy for cerebral edema should be closely monitored for
which complication?
A. Hypernatremia and dehydration
B. Hypoglycemia
C. Bradycardia
D. Hypercalcemia
Correct Answer: A. Hypernatremia and dehydration
Rationale: Mannitol is an osmotic diuretic that increases fluid loss and serum sodium.
Electrolyte imbalance and dehydration are key risks.
6. During a neurological assessment, which finding is most concerning for brainstem
involvement?
A. Unequal pupil size
B. Mild confusion
C. Headache after waking
D. Dizziness when standing
Correct Answer: A. Unequal pupil size
Rationale: Pupil asymmetry may indicate cranial nerve dysfunction or brainstem
compression. Other symptoms are less specific.
7. A patient with multiple sclerosis reports fatigue. What is the most appropriate nursing
intervention?
A. Encourage prolonged physical activity
B. Schedule activities with rest periods
C. Restrict all movement during flare-ups
D. Increase protein intake only
Correct Answer: B. Schedule activities with rest periods
Rationale: Energy conservation is essential in MS management. Overexertion worsens
fatigue, while complete inactivity is not beneficial.
8. Which medication class is commonly used to manage neuropathic pain?
A. Beta blockers
B. Anticonvulsants
C. Anticoagulants
D. Diuretics
Correct Answer: B. Anticonvulsants
Rationale: Drugs like gabapentin stabilize nerve activity and reduce neuropathic pain. Other
classes do not target nerve pain pathways.
9. A patient with meningitis is placed in isolation. Which precaution is appropriate?
A. Airborne precautions only
B. Contact precautions only
C. Droplet precautions
D. No isolation required
Correct Answer: C. Droplet precautions
Rationale: Bacterial meningitis spreads via respiratory droplets. Droplet precautions reduce
transmission risk.
10. Which assessment finding indicates worsening spinal cord compression?
A. Mild back discomfort
, B. Decreased bowel sounds
C. Progressive lower limb weakness
D. Increased appetite
Correct Answer: C. Progressive lower limb weakness
Rationale: Neurological deterioration such as worsening weakness signals spinal cord
compromise requiring urgent intervention.
11. A nurse is educating a patient on stroke prevention. Which statement indicates
understanding?
A. “I will stop all medications once I feel better.”
B. “I will control blood pressure and diabetes regularly.”
C. “I only need to exercise after a stroke.”
D. “Diet does not affect stroke risk.”
Correct Answer: B. “I will control blood pressure and diabetes regularly.”
Rationale: Chronic disease management reduces stroke risk. Other statements show
misunderstanding of prevention strategies.
12. Which lab result is most critical in monitoring anticoagulation therapy?
A. Hemoglobin A1c
B. INR
C. Serum potassium
D. Platelet count only
Correct Answer: B. INR
Rationale: INR monitors warfarin effectiveness. Other labs are not primary indicators of
anticoagulation status.
13. A patient with Parkinson’s disease is experiencing rigidity. Which intervention is most
appropriate?
A. Limit all mobility
B. Encourage slow, controlled movements
C. Apply restraints for safety
D. Increase sedation
Correct Answer: B. Encourage slow, controlled movements
Rationale: Controlled movement reduces stiffness and improves function. Immobilization
worsens symptoms.
14. Which symptom is an early sign of hypoglycemia in neurological patients?
A. Bradycardia
B. Tremors and sweating
C. Hypertension
D. Hyperthermia
Correct Answer: B. Tremors and sweating
Rationale: Adrenergic response causes tremors, sweating, and anxiety early in hypoglycemia.
15. A post-craniotomy patient should be positioned in which way?
A. Flat supine
B. Trendelenburg
C. Head elevated 30 degrees
D. Prone position
ANSWERS | 2026–2027 LATEST UPDATE | GUARANTEED
PASS | DETAILED RATIONALES | FULL STUDY GUIDE | EXAM
PREP | PRACTICE TEST | CERTIFICATION PREPARATION
1. A newly certified RN is assigned to a medical-neurology unit. Which action best
demonstrates safe patient prioritization during an initial shift assessment?
A. Completing medication reconciliation for all assigned patients first
B. Performing a focused neurological assessment on a post-stroke patient
C. Documenting admission histories before physical assessments
D. Reviewing physician orders for upcoming discharges
Correct Answer: B. Performing a focused neurological assessment on a post-stroke patient
Rationale: Neurological conditions require time-sensitive assessment to detect deterioration
such as stroke progression or increased intracranial pressure. Medication reconciliation and
documentation are important but not immediately safety-critical. Prioritization focuses on
patient stability first.
2. A patient with suspected increased intracranial pressure (ICP) is being monitored. Which
finding requires immediate intervention?
A. Blood pressure 138/82 mmHg
B. Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score drop from 15 to 13
C. Mild headache rated 3/10
D. Slight restlessness after repositioning
Correct Answer: B. Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score drop from 15 to 13
Rationale: A declining GCS indicates neurological deterioration and possible rising ICP. Mild
headache and slight restlessness are expected findings, while blood pressure in this range is
not immediately alarming.
3. Which intervention is most appropriate for preventing aspiration in a patient with
dysphagia after stroke?
A. Providing thin liquids for easier swallowing
B. Keeping the patient supine during meals
C. Elevating head of bed to 90 degrees during feeding
D. Encouraging rapid feeding to reduce fatigue
Correct Answer: C. Elevating head of bed to 90 degrees during feeding
Rationale: Upright positioning reduces aspiration risk. Thin liquids and supine positioning
increase risk, while rapid feeding can overwhelm swallowing reflexes.
4. A nurse is reviewing seizure precautions. Which equipment is most essential at bedside?
A. Oxygen, suction setup, padded side rails
B. Defibrillator and IV vasopressors
C. Foley catheter kit and sterile gloves
D. Incentive spirometer and nebulizer
Correct Answer: A. Oxygen, suction setup, padded side rails
Rationale: Airway protection and injury prevention are priorities during seizures. Other
equipment is not immediately relevant to acute seizure management.
,5. A patient receiving mannitol therapy for cerebral edema should be closely monitored for
which complication?
A. Hypernatremia and dehydration
B. Hypoglycemia
C. Bradycardia
D. Hypercalcemia
Correct Answer: A. Hypernatremia and dehydration
Rationale: Mannitol is an osmotic diuretic that increases fluid loss and serum sodium.
Electrolyte imbalance and dehydration are key risks.
6. During a neurological assessment, which finding is most concerning for brainstem
involvement?
A. Unequal pupil size
B. Mild confusion
C. Headache after waking
D. Dizziness when standing
Correct Answer: A. Unequal pupil size
Rationale: Pupil asymmetry may indicate cranial nerve dysfunction or brainstem
compression. Other symptoms are less specific.
7. A patient with multiple sclerosis reports fatigue. What is the most appropriate nursing
intervention?
A. Encourage prolonged physical activity
B. Schedule activities with rest periods
C. Restrict all movement during flare-ups
D. Increase protein intake only
Correct Answer: B. Schedule activities with rest periods
Rationale: Energy conservation is essential in MS management. Overexertion worsens
fatigue, while complete inactivity is not beneficial.
8. Which medication class is commonly used to manage neuropathic pain?
A. Beta blockers
B. Anticonvulsants
C. Anticoagulants
D. Diuretics
Correct Answer: B. Anticonvulsants
Rationale: Drugs like gabapentin stabilize nerve activity and reduce neuropathic pain. Other
classes do not target nerve pain pathways.
9. A patient with meningitis is placed in isolation. Which precaution is appropriate?
A. Airborne precautions only
B. Contact precautions only
C. Droplet precautions
D. No isolation required
Correct Answer: C. Droplet precautions
Rationale: Bacterial meningitis spreads via respiratory droplets. Droplet precautions reduce
transmission risk.
10. Which assessment finding indicates worsening spinal cord compression?
A. Mild back discomfort
, B. Decreased bowel sounds
C. Progressive lower limb weakness
D. Increased appetite
Correct Answer: C. Progressive lower limb weakness
Rationale: Neurological deterioration such as worsening weakness signals spinal cord
compromise requiring urgent intervention.
11. A nurse is educating a patient on stroke prevention. Which statement indicates
understanding?
A. “I will stop all medications once I feel better.”
B. “I will control blood pressure and diabetes regularly.”
C. “I only need to exercise after a stroke.”
D. “Diet does not affect stroke risk.”
Correct Answer: B. “I will control blood pressure and diabetes regularly.”
Rationale: Chronic disease management reduces stroke risk. Other statements show
misunderstanding of prevention strategies.
12. Which lab result is most critical in monitoring anticoagulation therapy?
A. Hemoglobin A1c
B. INR
C. Serum potassium
D. Platelet count only
Correct Answer: B. INR
Rationale: INR monitors warfarin effectiveness. Other labs are not primary indicators of
anticoagulation status.
13. A patient with Parkinson’s disease is experiencing rigidity. Which intervention is most
appropriate?
A. Limit all mobility
B. Encourage slow, controlled movements
C. Apply restraints for safety
D. Increase sedation
Correct Answer: B. Encourage slow, controlled movements
Rationale: Controlled movement reduces stiffness and improves function. Immobilization
worsens symptoms.
14. Which symptom is an early sign of hypoglycemia in neurological patients?
A. Bradycardia
B. Tremors and sweating
C. Hypertension
D. Hyperthermia
Correct Answer: B. Tremors and sweating
Rationale: Adrenergic response causes tremors, sweating, and anxiety early in hypoglycemia.
15. A post-craniotomy patient should be positioned in which way?
A. Flat supine
B. Trendelenburg
C. Head elevated 30 degrees
D. Prone position
