Family Medicine Board Review
2026 Exam Questions and
Correct Answers | New Update
A 42-year-old Asian male presents for follow-up of elevated blood
pressure. He has no additional chronic medical problems and is
otherwise asymptomatic. An examination is significant for a blood
pressure of 162/95 mm Hg but is otherwise unremarkable.
Laboratory Findings unremarkable
Urine microalbumin negative
,According to the American College of Cardiology/American Heart
Association 2017 guidelines, which one of the following would be the
most appropriate medication to initiate at this time?
A) Clonidine (Catapres), 0.1 mg twice daily
B) Hydralazine, 25 mg three times daily
C) Lisinopril/hydrochlorothiazide (Zestoretic), 10/12.5 mg daily
D) Metoprolol tartrate (Lopressor), 25 mg twice daily
E) Triamterene (Dyrenium), 50 mg daily - ANSWER ✔✔ANSWER: C
This patient has hypertension and according to both JNC 8 and
American College of Cardiology/American Heart Association 2017
guidelines, antihypertensive treatment should be initiated. For the
general non-African-American population, monotherapy with an ACE
inhibitor, an angiotensin receptor blocker, a calcium channel blocker, or a
thiazide diuretic would be appropriate for initial management. It is also
appropriate to initiate combination antihypertensive therapy as an initial
management strategy, although patients should not take an ACE
inhibitor and an angiotensin receptor blocker simultaneously. Studies
have shown that blood pressure control is achieved faster with the
initiation of combination therapy compared to monotherapy, without an
increase in morbidity. Lisinopril/hydrochlorothiazide would be an
,appropriate choice in this patient. -Blockers, vasodilators, -blockers, and
potassium-sparing diuretics are not recommended as initial choices for
the treatment of hypertension.
During rounds at the nursing home, you are informed that there are two
residents on the unit with laboratory-confirmed influenza. According to
CDC guidelines, who should receive chemoprophylaxis for influenza?
A) Only symptomatic residents on the same unit
B) Only symptomatic residents in the entire facility
C) All asymptomatic residents on the same unit
D) All residents of the facility regardless of symptoms
E) All staff regardless of symptoms - ANSWER ✔✔ANSWER: C
In long-term care facilities, an influenza outbreak is defined as two
laboratory-confirmed cases of influenza
within 72 hours in patients on the same unit. The CDC recommends
chemoprophylaxis for all asymptomatic residents of the affected unit.
Any resident exhibiting symptoms of influenza should be treated for
influenza and not given chemoprophylaxis dosing. Chemoprophylaxis is
not recommended for residents of other units unless there are two
laboratory-confirmed cases in those units. Facility staff of the affected
unit can be considered for chemoprophylaxis if they have not been
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STATEMENT. ALL RIGHTS RESERVED
3
, vaccinated or if they had a recent vaccination, but chemoprophylaxis is
not recommended for all staff in the entire facility.
A 24-year-old female presents with a 2-day history of mild to moderate
pelvic pain. She has had two male sex partners in the last 6 months and
uses oral contraceptives and sometimes condoms.
A physical examination reveals a temperature of 36.4°C (97.5°F) and
moderate cervical motion and uterine tenderness. Urine hCG and a
urinalysis are negative. Vaginal microscopy shows only WBCs.
The initiation of antibiotics for treatment of pelvic inflammatory disease in
this patient
A) is appropriate at this time
B) requires an elevated temperature, WBC count, or C-reactive protein
level
C) should be based on the results of gonorrhea and Chlamydia testing
D) should be based on the results of pelvic ultrasonography -
ANSWER ✔✔ANSWER: A
Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) is a clinical diagnosis, and treatment
should be administered at the time of diagnosis and not delayed until the
results of the nucleic acid amplification testing (NAAT) for gonorrhea and
2026 Exam Questions and
Correct Answers | New Update
A 42-year-old Asian male presents for follow-up of elevated blood
pressure. He has no additional chronic medical problems and is
otherwise asymptomatic. An examination is significant for a blood
pressure of 162/95 mm Hg but is otherwise unremarkable.
Laboratory Findings unremarkable
Urine microalbumin negative
,According to the American College of Cardiology/American Heart
Association 2017 guidelines, which one of the following would be the
most appropriate medication to initiate at this time?
A) Clonidine (Catapres), 0.1 mg twice daily
B) Hydralazine, 25 mg three times daily
C) Lisinopril/hydrochlorothiazide (Zestoretic), 10/12.5 mg daily
D) Metoprolol tartrate (Lopressor), 25 mg twice daily
E) Triamterene (Dyrenium), 50 mg daily - ANSWER ✔✔ANSWER: C
This patient has hypertension and according to both JNC 8 and
American College of Cardiology/American Heart Association 2017
guidelines, antihypertensive treatment should be initiated. For the
general non-African-American population, monotherapy with an ACE
inhibitor, an angiotensin receptor blocker, a calcium channel blocker, or a
thiazide diuretic would be appropriate for initial management. It is also
appropriate to initiate combination antihypertensive therapy as an initial
management strategy, although patients should not take an ACE
inhibitor and an angiotensin receptor blocker simultaneously. Studies
have shown that blood pressure control is achieved faster with the
initiation of combination therapy compared to monotherapy, without an
increase in morbidity. Lisinopril/hydrochlorothiazide would be an
,appropriate choice in this patient. -Blockers, vasodilators, -blockers, and
potassium-sparing diuretics are not recommended as initial choices for
the treatment of hypertension.
During rounds at the nursing home, you are informed that there are two
residents on the unit with laboratory-confirmed influenza. According to
CDC guidelines, who should receive chemoprophylaxis for influenza?
A) Only symptomatic residents on the same unit
B) Only symptomatic residents in the entire facility
C) All asymptomatic residents on the same unit
D) All residents of the facility regardless of symptoms
E) All staff regardless of symptoms - ANSWER ✔✔ANSWER: C
In long-term care facilities, an influenza outbreak is defined as two
laboratory-confirmed cases of influenza
within 72 hours in patients on the same unit. The CDC recommends
chemoprophylaxis for all asymptomatic residents of the affected unit.
Any resident exhibiting symptoms of influenza should be treated for
influenza and not given chemoprophylaxis dosing. Chemoprophylaxis is
not recommended for residents of other units unless there are two
laboratory-confirmed cases in those units. Facility staff of the affected
unit can be considered for chemoprophylaxis if they have not been
COPYRIGHT©NINJANERD 2025/2026. YEAR PUBLISHED 2026. COMPANY REGISTRATION NUMBER: 619652435. TERMS OF USE. PRIVACY
STATEMENT. ALL RIGHTS RESERVED
3
, vaccinated or if they had a recent vaccination, but chemoprophylaxis is
not recommended for all staff in the entire facility.
A 24-year-old female presents with a 2-day history of mild to moderate
pelvic pain. She has had two male sex partners in the last 6 months and
uses oral contraceptives and sometimes condoms.
A physical examination reveals a temperature of 36.4°C (97.5°F) and
moderate cervical motion and uterine tenderness. Urine hCG and a
urinalysis are negative. Vaginal microscopy shows only WBCs.
The initiation of antibiotics for treatment of pelvic inflammatory disease in
this patient
A) is appropriate at this time
B) requires an elevated temperature, WBC count, or C-reactive protein
level
C) should be based on the results of gonorrhea and Chlamydia testing
D) should be based on the results of pelvic ultrasonography -
ANSWER ✔✔ANSWER: A
Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) is a clinical diagnosis, and treatment
should be administered at the time of diagnosis and not delayed until the
results of the nucleic acid amplification testing (NAAT) for gonorrhea and
