WEST COAST EMT BLOCK #2 EXAM
QUESTIONS WITH 100% CORRECT ANSWERS .
A 60-year-old man is found to be unresponsive, pulseless, and apneic. You should: - correct Answers
-B. begin CPR until an AED is available.
Basic life support (BLS) is defined as: - correct Answers -B. noninvasive emergency care that is used
to treat conditions such as airway obstruction, respiratory arrest, and cardiac arrest.
Between each chest compression, you should __________. - correct Answers -B. allow full chest
recoil
Complications associated with chest compressions include all of the following, EXCEPT: - correct
Answers -B. gastric distention.
CPR is in progress on a pregnant woman. Shortly after manually displacing her uterus to the left,
return of spontaneous circulation occurs. Which of the following would MOST likely explain this? -
correct Answers -D. Pressure was relieved from her aorta and vena cava, which improved chest
compression effectiveness.
CPR retraining is the MOST effective when it: - correct Answers -C. involves hands-on practice.
CPR should be initiated when: - correct Answers -D. a valid living will is unavailable.
CPR will NOT be effective if the patient is: - correct Answers -B. prone.
Gastric distention will MOST likely occur: - correct Answers -e. if you ventilate a patient too quickly.
If an object is visible in the unconscious patient's airway, you should __________. - correct Answers -
C. remove it
,In most cases, cardiopulmonary arrest in infants and children is caused by: - correct Answers -C.
respiratory arrest.
Several attempts to adequately open a trauma patient's airway with the jaw-thrust maneuver have
been unsuccessful. You should: - correct Answers -D. carefully perform the head tilt-chin lift
maneuver.
Signs of a sudden severe upper airway obstruction include all of the following, EXCEPT: - correct
Answers -D. forceful coughing.
The impedance threshold device (ITD) may improve circulation during active compression-
decompression CPR by: - correct Answers -A. limiting the amount of air that enters the lungs during
the recoil phase between chest compressions, which results in negative intrathoracic pressure and
improved cardiac filling.
What is the correct compression-to-ventilation ratio for adult CPR? - correct Answers -A. 30:2
When performing CPR on a child, you should compress the chest: - correct Answers -B. with one or
two hands.
While rescuer one is finishing his or her fifth cycle of 30 compressions, rescuer two should: - correct
Answers -D. move to the opposite side of the patient's chest.
Without practice, your CPR skills will __________. - correct Answers -D. deteriorate over time
Your conscious patient has a mild partial airway obstruction. You should: - correct Answers -B.
encourage the patient to cough.
Your partner is performing one-rescuer CPR on a middle-aged woman in cardiac arrest. When you
apply the AED pads, you note that she has a medication patch over the same area where one of the
AED pads will be placed. You should: - correct Answers -D. remove the medication patch, wipe away
any medication residue, and apply the AED pads.
Ten days after treating a 34-year-old patient with tuberculosis, you are given a tuberculin skin test,
which yields a positive result. This MOST likely indicates that:
, Select one: - correct Answers -C. you were exposed to another infected person prior to treating the
34-year-old patient.
After sizing up the scene of a patient with a possible infectious disease, your next priority should be
to: - correct Answers -D. take standard precautions.
An infectious disease is MOST accurately defined as:
Select one: - correct Answers -C. a medical condition caused by the growth and spread of small,
harmful organisms within the body.
Assessment of the medical patient is usually focused on the _________. - correct Answers -A. nature
of illness
Hepatitis B is more virulent than hepatitis C, which means that it: - correct Answers -B. has a greater
ability to produce disease.
In 2009, the H1N1 virus accounted for over 200,000 deaths worldwide in the form of the swine flu.
In 1919, a similar outbreak of the H1N1 occurred in the form of the Spanish flu. Starting in Kansas
City, the virus spread rapidly worldwide, claiming up to 50 million lives. These are both examples of:
- correct Answers -D. pandemics.
In which of the following situations would it be MOST appropriate to utilize an air medical
transportation service? - correct Answers -D. 61-year-old man with signs and symptoms of a stroke
and a ground transport time of 50 minutes
It is especially important to assess pulse, sensation, and movement in all extremities as well as
pupillary reactions in patients with a suspected ___________ problem. - correct Answers -D.
neurologic
Most patients with an infectious disease will have _________. - correct Answers -D. a fever
Most treatments provided in the prehospital setting are intended to _________. - correct Answers -
C. address the patient's symptoms
The BEST way to prevent infection from whooping cough is to: - correct Answers -C. get vaccinated
against diphtheria, tetanus, and pertussis.
QUESTIONS WITH 100% CORRECT ANSWERS .
A 60-year-old man is found to be unresponsive, pulseless, and apneic. You should: - correct Answers
-B. begin CPR until an AED is available.
Basic life support (BLS) is defined as: - correct Answers -B. noninvasive emergency care that is used
to treat conditions such as airway obstruction, respiratory arrest, and cardiac arrest.
Between each chest compression, you should __________. - correct Answers -B. allow full chest
recoil
Complications associated with chest compressions include all of the following, EXCEPT: - correct
Answers -B. gastric distention.
CPR is in progress on a pregnant woman. Shortly after manually displacing her uterus to the left,
return of spontaneous circulation occurs. Which of the following would MOST likely explain this? -
correct Answers -D. Pressure was relieved from her aorta and vena cava, which improved chest
compression effectiveness.
CPR retraining is the MOST effective when it: - correct Answers -C. involves hands-on practice.
CPR should be initiated when: - correct Answers -D. a valid living will is unavailable.
CPR will NOT be effective if the patient is: - correct Answers -B. prone.
Gastric distention will MOST likely occur: - correct Answers -e. if you ventilate a patient too quickly.
If an object is visible in the unconscious patient's airway, you should __________. - correct Answers -
C. remove it
,In most cases, cardiopulmonary arrest in infants and children is caused by: - correct Answers -C.
respiratory arrest.
Several attempts to adequately open a trauma patient's airway with the jaw-thrust maneuver have
been unsuccessful. You should: - correct Answers -D. carefully perform the head tilt-chin lift
maneuver.
Signs of a sudden severe upper airway obstruction include all of the following, EXCEPT: - correct
Answers -D. forceful coughing.
The impedance threshold device (ITD) may improve circulation during active compression-
decompression CPR by: - correct Answers -A. limiting the amount of air that enters the lungs during
the recoil phase between chest compressions, which results in negative intrathoracic pressure and
improved cardiac filling.
What is the correct compression-to-ventilation ratio for adult CPR? - correct Answers -A. 30:2
When performing CPR on a child, you should compress the chest: - correct Answers -B. with one or
two hands.
While rescuer one is finishing his or her fifth cycle of 30 compressions, rescuer two should: - correct
Answers -D. move to the opposite side of the patient's chest.
Without practice, your CPR skills will __________. - correct Answers -D. deteriorate over time
Your conscious patient has a mild partial airway obstruction. You should: - correct Answers -B.
encourage the patient to cough.
Your partner is performing one-rescuer CPR on a middle-aged woman in cardiac arrest. When you
apply the AED pads, you note that she has a medication patch over the same area where one of the
AED pads will be placed. You should: - correct Answers -D. remove the medication patch, wipe away
any medication residue, and apply the AED pads.
Ten days after treating a 34-year-old patient with tuberculosis, you are given a tuberculin skin test,
which yields a positive result. This MOST likely indicates that:
, Select one: - correct Answers -C. you were exposed to another infected person prior to treating the
34-year-old patient.
After sizing up the scene of a patient with a possible infectious disease, your next priority should be
to: - correct Answers -D. take standard precautions.
An infectious disease is MOST accurately defined as:
Select one: - correct Answers -C. a medical condition caused by the growth and spread of small,
harmful organisms within the body.
Assessment of the medical patient is usually focused on the _________. - correct Answers -A. nature
of illness
Hepatitis B is more virulent than hepatitis C, which means that it: - correct Answers -B. has a greater
ability to produce disease.
In 2009, the H1N1 virus accounted for over 200,000 deaths worldwide in the form of the swine flu.
In 1919, a similar outbreak of the H1N1 occurred in the form of the Spanish flu. Starting in Kansas
City, the virus spread rapidly worldwide, claiming up to 50 million lives. These are both examples of:
- correct Answers -D. pandemics.
In which of the following situations would it be MOST appropriate to utilize an air medical
transportation service? - correct Answers -D. 61-year-old man with signs and symptoms of a stroke
and a ground transport time of 50 minutes
It is especially important to assess pulse, sensation, and movement in all extremities as well as
pupillary reactions in patients with a suspected ___________ problem. - correct Answers -D.
neurologic
Most patients with an infectious disease will have _________. - correct Answers -D. a fever
Most treatments provided in the prehospital setting are intended to _________. - correct Answers -
C. address the patient's symptoms
The BEST way to prevent infection from whooping cough is to: - correct Answers -C. get vaccinated
against diphtheria, tetanus, and pertussis.
