TEXAS FOOD MANAGER CERTIFICATION EXAM
2026/2027 | Learn2Serve | 360Training | ANSI-CFP
Accredited | Complete Q&A | Pass Guaranteed - A+
Graded
Section 1: Food Safety Fundamentals & Foodborne Illness (Q1-15)
Q1. According to CDC estimates, approximately how many people in the United
States get sick from foodborne illnesses each year?
A. 12 million
B. 28 million
C. 48 million
D. 72 million
C. 48 million [CORRECT]
Rationale: The CDC estimates approximately 48 million cases of foodborne illness
annually in the U.S., resulting in 128,000 hospitalizations and 3,000 deaths. Options A,
B, and D do not reflect current CDC statistics.
Correct Answer: C
Q2. Which of the following populations is NOT considered high-risk for severe
complications from foodborne illness?
A. Elderly adults over 65
B. Healthy adult males aged 25-40 with no chronic conditions
C. Pregnant women
D. Immunocompromised individuals
B. Healthy adult males aged 25-40 with no chronic conditions [CORRECT]
Rationale: High-risk populations include young children, elderly adults, pregnant
women, and immunocompromised individuals. Healthy adults with robust immune
systems are at lower risk for severe complications.
Correct Answer: B
Q3. Norovirus is the leading cause of foodborne illness in the United States. What is
its primary mode of transmission?
,A. Airborne droplets from coughing
B. Fecal-oral route, often through contaminated ready-to-eat foods or infected food
handlers
C. Blood-to-blood contact
D. Insect bites
B. Fecal-oral route, often through contaminated ready-to-eat foods or infected food
handlers [CORRECT]
Rationale: Norovirus spreads primarily through the fecal-oral route via contaminated
food, water, surfaces, or direct contact. It is highly contagious and commonly
associated with ready-to-eat foods handled by ill workers.
Correct Answer: B
Q4. A food handler with Norovirus symptoms (vomiting and diarrhea) must be
excluded from the food establishment for at least:
A. 12 hours after symptoms resolve
B. 24 hours after symptoms resolve
C. 24-48 hours after symptoms resolve
D. 7 days after symptoms resolve
C. 24-48 hours after symptoms resolve [CORRECT]
Rationale: FDA Food Code and Texas DSHS require exclusion of food handlers with
Norovirus for 24-48 hours after symptoms resolve to prevent fecal-oral transmission.
Shorter periods (A, B) are insufficient, and 7 days (D) applies to Hepatitis A.
Correct Answer: C
Q5. Salmonella is commonly associated with which food items?
A. Deli meats and soft cheeses
B. Eggs and poultry
C. Untreated garlic-oil mixtures
D. Sliced melons and tomatoes
B. Eggs and poultry [CORRECT]
Rationale: Salmonella is predominantly associated with eggs, poultry, and raw meat.
Deli meats/soft cheeses (A) are linked to Listeria. Garlic-oil mixtures (C) risk
Clostridium botulinum. Sliced melons (D) are general TCS foods.
Correct Answer: B
,Q6. Which foodborne pathogen is associated with hemolytic uremic syndrome (HUS),
a potentially fatal kidney complication?
A. Salmonella
B. Shigella
C. E. coli O157:H7
D. Norovirus
C. E. coli O157:H7 [CORRECT]
Rationale: E. coli O157:H7 produces Shiga toxins that can cause HUS, particularly in
children and elderly. It is associated with undercooked ground beef and
contaminated produce. Salmonella (A), Shigella (B), and Norovirus (D) do not
typically cause HUS.
Correct Answer: C
Q7. A food handler develops jaundice (yellowing of skin and eyes). According to FDA
Food Code and Texas regulations, this employee must be:
A. Allowed to work with a face mask
B. Excluded from the establishment for a minimum of 7 days from symptom onset or
as directed by the regulatory authority
C. Assigned only to dishwashing duties
D. Given antibiotics and allowed to return immediately
B. Excluded from the establishment for a minimum of 7 days from symptom onset or
as directed by the regulatory authority [CORRECT]
Rationale: Jaundice indicates possible Hepatitis A infection. FDA/Texas requires
exclusion for at least 7 days from jaundice onset. Masks (A) and dishwashing (C) do
not prevent fecal-oral transmission. Immediate return (D) is dangerous.
Correct Answer: B
Q8. Listeria monocytogenes is particularly dangerous because it:
A. Is killed instantly at refrigeration temperatures
B. Can grow at refrigeration temperatures (41°F/5°C and below)
C. Only affects healthy adults
D. Is destroyed by normal cooking temperatures above 100°F
B. Can grow at refrigeration temperatures (41°F/5°C and below) [CORRECT]
Rationale: Listeria is a psychrotroph that can multiply at refrigeration temperatures,
, making it uniquely dangerous in ready-to-eat foods stored cold. It does not die at
refrigeration (A), affects high-risk groups (C), and requires higher cooking temps (D).
Correct Answer: B
Q9. Which of the following is NOT one of the FDA Food Code "Big 6" foodborne
illnesses requiring exclusion or restriction of ill food handlers?
A. Norovirus
B. Salmonella Typhi
C. Campylobacter
D. Hepatitis A
C. Campylobacter [CORRECT]
Rationale: The Big 6 are: Norovirus, Salmonella Typhi, Shigella, E. coli O157:H7,
Hepatitis A, and Listeria monocytogenes. Campylobacter is a significant pathogen
but is not included in the FDA Big 6 exclusion requirements.
Correct Answer: C
Q10. Shigella is primarily transmitted through:
A. Airborne respiratory droplets
B. Fecal-oral route, often via contaminated ready-to-eat foods
C. Animal bites
D. Contaminated drinking water only
B. Fecal-oral route, often via contaminated ready-to-eat foods [CORRECT]
Rationale: Shigella spreads via fecal-oral transmission through contaminated food,
water, or surfaces. Ready-to-eat foods handled by infected workers are common
vehicles. It is not airborne (A) or transmitted by bites (C).
Correct Answer: B
Q11. A food handler is diagnosed with Hepatitis A. Which statement is correct
regarding vaccination?
A. No vaccine exists for Hepatitis A
B. A vaccine is available and is recommended for food handlers in high-risk situations
C. Vaccination is mandatory for all U.S. citizens
D. The vaccine only protects for 30 days
B. A vaccine is available and is recommended for food handlers in high-risk situations
[CORRECT]
2026/2027 | Learn2Serve | 360Training | ANSI-CFP
Accredited | Complete Q&A | Pass Guaranteed - A+
Graded
Section 1: Food Safety Fundamentals & Foodborne Illness (Q1-15)
Q1. According to CDC estimates, approximately how many people in the United
States get sick from foodborne illnesses each year?
A. 12 million
B. 28 million
C. 48 million
D. 72 million
C. 48 million [CORRECT]
Rationale: The CDC estimates approximately 48 million cases of foodborne illness
annually in the U.S., resulting in 128,000 hospitalizations and 3,000 deaths. Options A,
B, and D do not reflect current CDC statistics.
Correct Answer: C
Q2. Which of the following populations is NOT considered high-risk for severe
complications from foodborne illness?
A. Elderly adults over 65
B. Healthy adult males aged 25-40 with no chronic conditions
C. Pregnant women
D. Immunocompromised individuals
B. Healthy adult males aged 25-40 with no chronic conditions [CORRECT]
Rationale: High-risk populations include young children, elderly adults, pregnant
women, and immunocompromised individuals. Healthy adults with robust immune
systems are at lower risk for severe complications.
Correct Answer: B
Q3. Norovirus is the leading cause of foodborne illness in the United States. What is
its primary mode of transmission?
,A. Airborne droplets from coughing
B. Fecal-oral route, often through contaminated ready-to-eat foods or infected food
handlers
C. Blood-to-blood contact
D. Insect bites
B. Fecal-oral route, often through contaminated ready-to-eat foods or infected food
handlers [CORRECT]
Rationale: Norovirus spreads primarily through the fecal-oral route via contaminated
food, water, surfaces, or direct contact. It is highly contagious and commonly
associated with ready-to-eat foods handled by ill workers.
Correct Answer: B
Q4. A food handler with Norovirus symptoms (vomiting and diarrhea) must be
excluded from the food establishment for at least:
A. 12 hours after symptoms resolve
B. 24 hours after symptoms resolve
C. 24-48 hours after symptoms resolve
D. 7 days after symptoms resolve
C. 24-48 hours after symptoms resolve [CORRECT]
Rationale: FDA Food Code and Texas DSHS require exclusion of food handlers with
Norovirus for 24-48 hours after symptoms resolve to prevent fecal-oral transmission.
Shorter periods (A, B) are insufficient, and 7 days (D) applies to Hepatitis A.
Correct Answer: C
Q5. Salmonella is commonly associated with which food items?
A. Deli meats and soft cheeses
B. Eggs and poultry
C. Untreated garlic-oil mixtures
D. Sliced melons and tomatoes
B. Eggs and poultry [CORRECT]
Rationale: Salmonella is predominantly associated with eggs, poultry, and raw meat.
Deli meats/soft cheeses (A) are linked to Listeria. Garlic-oil mixtures (C) risk
Clostridium botulinum. Sliced melons (D) are general TCS foods.
Correct Answer: B
,Q6. Which foodborne pathogen is associated with hemolytic uremic syndrome (HUS),
a potentially fatal kidney complication?
A. Salmonella
B. Shigella
C. E. coli O157:H7
D. Norovirus
C. E. coli O157:H7 [CORRECT]
Rationale: E. coli O157:H7 produces Shiga toxins that can cause HUS, particularly in
children and elderly. It is associated with undercooked ground beef and
contaminated produce. Salmonella (A), Shigella (B), and Norovirus (D) do not
typically cause HUS.
Correct Answer: C
Q7. A food handler develops jaundice (yellowing of skin and eyes). According to FDA
Food Code and Texas regulations, this employee must be:
A. Allowed to work with a face mask
B. Excluded from the establishment for a minimum of 7 days from symptom onset or
as directed by the regulatory authority
C. Assigned only to dishwashing duties
D. Given antibiotics and allowed to return immediately
B. Excluded from the establishment for a minimum of 7 days from symptom onset or
as directed by the regulatory authority [CORRECT]
Rationale: Jaundice indicates possible Hepatitis A infection. FDA/Texas requires
exclusion for at least 7 days from jaundice onset. Masks (A) and dishwashing (C) do
not prevent fecal-oral transmission. Immediate return (D) is dangerous.
Correct Answer: B
Q8. Listeria monocytogenes is particularly dangerous because it:
A. Is killed instantly at refrigeration temperatures
B. Can grow at refrigeration temperatures (41°F/5°C and below)
C. Only affects healthy adults
D. Is destroyed by normal cooking temperatures above 100°F
B. Can grow at refrigeration temperatures (41°F/5°C and below) [CORRECT]
Rationale: Listeria is a psychrotroph that can multiply at refrigeration temperatures,
, making it uniquely dangerous in ready-to-eat foods stored cold. It does not die at
refrigeration (A), affects high-risk groups (C), and requires higher cooking temps (D).
Correct Answer: B
Q9. Which of the following is NOT one of the FDA Food Code "Big 6" foodborne
illnesses requiring exclusion or restriction of ill food handlers?
A. Norovirus
B. Salmonella Typhi
C. Campylobacter
D. Hepatitis A
C. Campylobacter [CORRECT]
Rationale: The Big 6 are: Norovirus, Salmonella Typhi, Shigella, E. coli O157:H7,
Hepatitis A, and Listeria monocytogenes. Campylobacter is a significant pathogen
but is not included in the FDA Big 6 exclusion requirements.
Correct Answer: C
Q10. Shigella is primarily transmitted through:
A. Airborne respiratory droplets
B. Fecal-oral route, often via contaminated ready-to-eat foods
C. Animal bites
D. Contaminated drinking water only
B. Fecal-oral route, often via contaminated ready-to-eat foods [CORRECT]
Rationale: Shigella spreads via fecal-oral transmission through contaminated food,
water, or surfaces. Ready-to-eat foods handled by infected workers are common
vehicles. It is not airborne (A) or transmitted by bites (C).
Correct Answer: B
Q11. A food handler is diagnosed with Hepatitis A. Which statement is correct
regarding vaccination?
A. No vaccine exists for Hepatitis A
B. A vaccine is available and is recommended for food handlers in high-risk situations
C. Vaccination is mandatory for all U.S. citizens
D. The vaccine only protects for 30 days
B. A vaccine is available and is recommended for food handlers in high-risk situations
[CORRECT]
