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Vista previa 4 fuera de 38 páginas
Examen

NRNP 6552 LATEST WITH 120 COMPLETE ACTUAL QUESTIONS AND VERIFIED ACTUAL ANSWERS NEW!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!

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Vista previa 4 fuera de 38 páginas

Pass NRNP 6552 (Advanced Practice Nursing – Women's Health and Pediatrics) with this comprehensive exam guide featuring actual questions and verified answers. Covers obstetrics (prenatal care: recommended weight gain 1st trimester underweight 5 lb, average weight woman 300 extra calories/day; gestational diabetes screening 75g OGTT at 24-28 weeks all pregnant women; fetal development: brain configuration complete at 12 weeks, uterus palpable above pubic symphysis at 12 weeks, fetal heart tones audible with conventional fetoscope at 18-20 weeks, crown-rump measurement best indicator of gestational age at 9 weeks; Naegele's rule calculation: LMP September 23 → EDD June 30; danger signs 1st trimester: vaginal bleeding and persistent vomiting; Braxton Hicks contractions: go for a walk; Piskacek's sign: asymmetric softened uterine enlargement; Hegar's sign: softness of uterus and ballottement at isthmus; Chadwick's sign, quickening, lightening, effacement, dilation, Leopold maneuvers, Bishop's score cervical readiness), high-risk pregnancy (abruptio placentae after blunt trauma, placenta previa, incompetent cervix cerclage purse-string stitch, hyperemesis gravidarum → nursing diagnosis anxiety, Rh status screening early pregnancy, direct Coombs test for newborn jaundice, Spalding's sign overlapping skull bones for intrauterine fetal death, abortion types: incomplete: products of conception retained, threatened, inevitable, missed; stillbirth grief: searching and yearning phase, VBAC, TOLAC), postpartum and lactation (mastitis: breastfeeding continue start with unaffected side, nipple tenderness apply dry heat, postpartum blues transient emotional disturbances days 1-10 resolving by 2 weeks, postpartum depression, postpartum psychosis; breastfeeding: 6-10 wet diapers/day indicates adequate intake, gradual weaning over 3 weeks to suppress lactation, breastfeeding after bariatric surgery: iron deficiency most common), neonatal and pediatric conditions (neonatal abstinence syndrome: quiet corner crib positioning; oral candidiasis thrush: nystatin treatment; nursemaid's elbow reduction, fever without source, bronchiolitis: AAP no longer recommends bronchodilators, RSV prophylaxis palivizumab, otitis media: omnicef for penicillin allergy, cough and cold medications: none recommended under 4 years, head lice: AAP discourages "no nit" school exclusion policies, first-line permethrin Nix, Lindane not recommended), pediatric growth and development (Denver Developmental Screening Test: compliance, alertness, attention span — fearlessness not included; BMI screening begin at age 2, blood pressure screening begin at age 3, lead screening at 12 months, cholesterol screening: all children at 9-11 years and 17-21 years; milk intake after 12 months: AAP/AHA 16 oz/day, vitamin D 400 IU daily, solid food introduction sequence: cereal first, then fruits/vegetables, then meats), genetic and congenital disorders (trisomy 21 Down syndrome: hypotonia, simian crease, epicanthal folds, Brushfield spots; Williams syndrome: cardiovascular disease; Angelman syndrome: happy demeanor frequent smiling/laughing, developmental delay, ataxia, seizures; spina bifida neural tube defect prevention: folic acid 4 mg/day preconception for women with prior affected pregnancy; fetal alcohol syndrome: dysmorphic facial features short palpebral fissures, thin upper lip, flattened philtrum; autism spectrum disorder: 20-30% develop epilepsy by adulthood, no cure, early intervention ABA; von Willebrand disease: most common inherited bleeding disorder, menorrhagia, easy bruising, normal PT/PTT, treat desmopressin DDAVP; hemophilia X-linked recessive), immunization schedule (MMR at 12 months, influenza vaccine, HPV vaccine, meningococcal vaccine, Tdap, DTaP, IPV, Hib, hepatitis B, hepatitis A, rotavirus, pneumococcal PCV13, varicella, yellow fever contraindicated in pregnancy, rubella vaccine contraindicated in pregnancy), pediatric infectious diseases (Koplik spots: measles/rubeola; varicella: chickenpox teardrop vesicles; fifth disease: parvovirus B19 slapped cheek; roseola: HHV-6 sudden high fever then rash; Kawasaki disease: leading cause acquired heart disease in children, minimum aspirin treatment 6-8 weeks, IVIG), pediatric dermatology (cafe-au-lait spots: more than 5 concerning for neurofibromatosis; Mongolian spot: blue-black macule on trunk/buttocks, benign, fades by school age; hemangioma: red-blue purple nodule that blanches with pressure), pediatric orthopedics (developmental dysplasia of the hip DDH: Barlow test posterior dislocation, Ortolani maneuver reduction; scoliosis screening: idiopathic scoliosis generally painless, curve usually right-sided; Nursemaid's elbow radial head subluxation reduction), pediatric neurology (atlantoaxial instability in Down syndrome: screening for Special Olympics participation in high-risk sports alpine skiing, equestrian, diving; ADHD attention deficit/hyperactivity disorder: methylphenidate Daytrana patch maximum 9 hours wear time; lacosamide Vimpat approved for monotherapy partial-onset seizures age 17+ years; desmopressin for primary nocturnal enuresis age 6+ years; risperidone Risperdal for autism-associated behaviors side effect fatigue), teratogens and medications in pregnancy (FDA pregnancy categories A, B, C, D, X: Category D positive evidence of human fetal risk but benefits may outweigh risks in certain situations; phenytoin Dilantin category D, mineral oil contraindicated in pregnancy, HPV vaccine contraindicated in pregnancy, yellow fever vaccine contraindicated in pregnancy, asthma management in pregnancy differs little from nonpregnant women, rheumatoid arthritis 75% remission during pregnancy), prenatal diagnostic tests (maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein MSAFP elevated → increased risk open neural tube defect, low MSAFP → increased risk trisomy 21; chorionic villus sampling CVS at 11-14 weeks detects chromosomal anomalies but NOT open neural tube defects; amniocentesis at 15-20 weeks, quad screen, cell-free fetal DNA NIPT, nuchal translucency ultrasound, detailed anatomy scan at 18-22 weeks), pediatric ethics and advocacy (AAP policy on medical marijuana: exceptions for compassionate use in children with debilitating or life-limiting diseases; child maltreatment: children of active duty service members face stressors that can lead to child maltreatment; SIDS prevention: bare crib firm sleep surface no soft objects; tooth avulsion: rinse gently with cold milk/saline/room temperature water and replant; international adoption post-arrival examination within 2 weeks of arrival in US), and pediatric endocrinology (short stature evaluation: auxiological evaluation comparing to standardized norms; growth hormone treatment; Turner syndrome, Noonan syndrome, Prader-Willi syndrome, Russell-Silver syndrome, constitutional growth delay, familial short stature). Essential for advanced practice nursing students.

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NRNP 6552 LATEST 2026-2027 WITH 120 COMPLETE ACTUAL
QUESTIONS AND VERIFIED ACTUAL ANSWERS NEW!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!




Mrs. Peterson found pinworms on 8 year old Randy. The clinician knows that
treatment for pinworms with pyrantel pamoate includes treating

A. Randy and all his siblings

B. Randy and the siblings who share the same bathroom

C. Randy and the siblings who share the same bedroom

D. the entire household - ANS... -D. the entire household

Gloria just delivered her baby and wants to start a vigorous exercise program to
get back in shape. You advise her that she can start strenuous exercises

A. in 1 week

B. in 3 weeks

C. in 6 weeks

D. in 8 weeks - ANS... -B. in 3 weeks

The clinician is seeing a toddler for a follow-up visit. The chart indicates that the
previous examiner noted an innocent murmur. You should suspect a possible
pathological murmur if the examination reveals the following

A. murmur is grade I-II/VI

B. murmur changes with toddler's position

C. murmur is musical in quality

D. murmur is diastolic - ANS... -D. murmur is diastolic

,To obtain the daily calcium intake recommended during pregnancy, what should a
woman consume per day?

A. One quart of cow's milk

B. Two cups of yogurt

C. Four slices of cheese

D. One cup of cottage cheese - ANS... -A. One quart of cow's milk

Allie, who has asthma, just found out she is pregnant. She is wondering whether
she should continue taking her medications. Which of the following is true
regarding asthma and pregnancy?

A. only inhaled (rather than oral) medications should be used

B. in the event of an acute exacerbation, glucocorticoids should not be used

C. management differs little from management in nonpregnant women

D. all medications may be used except for theophylline - ANS... -C. management
differs little from management in nonpregnant women


Sheila is pregnant and fearful of getting cervical cancer as her sister recently did.
She asks about receiving the HPV vaccine. How do you respond?

A. "As long as you're in your first trimester, the HPV vaccine is safe and
effective."

B. "Research has not shown this vaccine to be effective against preventing cervical
cancer."

C. "After the age of 20, the HPV vaccine is not recommended."

D. "You should not receive the vaccination when you are pregnant." - ANS... -D.
"You should not receive the vaccination when you are pregnant."

,2. Jack and Jill present for a preconception health counseling session. Jack is 34,
Jill is 33, and they have a 5 year old son, Jake. Jake is the product of an
uncomplicated pregnancy and labor. At birth, Jake had an open neural tube defect
and now has spina bifida with a loss of function of his lower extremities. Jack and
Jill want another child and ask if there is anything they can do to prevent the
recurrence of a neural tube defect in future pregnancies. What is your best response
to this couple?

A. "Jill should take 60 mg/day of an iron supplement to enhance stores to support
fetal development."

B. "It is a matter of genetics, and there is nothing you can do."

C. "Have a CVS performed at 12 to 14 weeks gestation to determine the health of
the fetus."

D. "Jill should take 4 mg/day of folic acid, beginning before conception." - ANS...
-D. "Jill should take 4 mg/day of folic acid, beginning before conception."

3. You are invited to speak to a group of public school administrators about recent
outbreaks of head lice. As an advocate for children and families you share

A. "no nit" policies that exclude children until all nits are removed are essential to
eradicate this problem

B. the American Academy of Pediatrics and the National Association of School
Nurses discourage "no nit" policies that exclude children from school

C. occlusive agents, such as petroleum shampoo and herbal oils, applied to
suffocate the lice are showing promising results in randomized controlled trials

D. lindane is recommended by the American Academy of Pediatrics as a treatment
choice - ANS... -B. the American Academy of Pediatrics and the National
Association of School Nurses discourage "no nit" policies that exclude children
from school

4. What is the simplest and safest method of suppressing lactation after it has
started?

A. administering oral and long-acting injections of hormonal preparations

, B. using breast binders

C. gradually weaning the baby to a bottle or cup over a 3-week period

D. stopping "cold-turkey" - ANS... -C. gradually weaning the baby to a bottle or
cup over a 3-week period

5. When can you hear fetal heart tones with a conventional fetoscope?

A. 7 to 8 weeks

B. 10 to 12 weeks

C. 18 to 20 weeks

D. more than 20 weeks - ANS... -C. 18 to 20 weeks

6. The reaspn most often cited to explain why women who have had a usual length
of stay and normal delivery discontinue breastfeeding before 8 weeks postpartum
is

A. that the mother returned to work or school

B. the perception that the infant is not receiving enough milk

C. the ease of formula use

D. maternal or infant illness - ANS... -B. the perception that the infant is not
receiving enough milk

7. Pediatric patients may now be prescribed OxyContin for pain. Patients must be
already responding to and tolerating a minimum opioid dose equal to at least 20
mg of oxycodone per day before they can be prescribed an equivalent dose of
OxyContin. In order to be prescribed OxyContin, pediatric patient must be

A. 5 to 16 years

B. 11 to 16 years

Información del documento

Subido en
18 de mayo de 2026
Número de páginas
38
Escrito en
2025/2026
Tipo
Examen
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