Diabetes Management in Nursing 100
Question Practice Exam With Correct
Verified And Well Analyzed Answers |
Already Graded A+ | 2026 Update!!!
1. A nurse is teaching a patient newly diagnosed with type 1
diabetes mellitus about insulin therapy. Which statement by
the patient indicates correct understanding?
A. “I will only need insulin when my blood sugar is very high.” B.
“Insulin helps move glucose from the bloodstream into the cells.” C.
“Insulin can be stopped once my diet improves.” D. “Insulin
prevents the kidneys from filtering glucose.”
Answer: B. “Insulin helps move glucose from the bloodstream into
the cells.”
Rationale: Insulin facilitates the movement of glucose from the
bloodstream into body cells for energy use. Patients with type 1
diabetes cannot produce sufficient insulin and therefore require
lifelong insulin therapy. The other options are incorrect because
insulin is required consistently, not only during hyperglycemia, and it
does not directly prevent kidney filtration of glucose.
2. Which assessment finding is most consistent with
hypoglycemia?
A. Fruity breath odor B. Warm, dry skin C. Shakiness and
diaphoresis D. Deep, rapid respirations
,Answer: C. Shakiness and diaphoresis
Rationale: Hypoglycemia activates the sympathetic nervous system,
leading to shakiness, sweating, tachycardia, and anxiety. Fruity breath
odor and Kussmaul respirations are associated with diabetic
ketoacidosis. Warm, dry skin is more commonly associated with
hyperglycemia.
3. A patient with diabetes reports numbness and tingling in both
feet. Which complication does the nurse suspect?
A. Retinopathy B. Peripheral neuropathy C. Nephropathy D.
Coronary artery disease
Answer: B. Peripheral neuropathy
Rationale: Peripheral neuropathy is a common complication of
diabetes resulting from long-term hyperglycemia that damages nerves.
Symptoms include numbness, burning, tingling, and decreased
sensation in the extremities. Retinopathy affects vision, while
nephropathy affects kidney function.
4. Which laboratory value best reflects long-term blood glucose
control?
A. Fasting blood glucose B. Random blood glucose C. Hemoglobin
A1c D. Serum insulin level
Answer: C. Hemoglobin A1c
Rationale: Hemoglobin A1c reflects average blood glucose levels over
the previous 2–3 months. It is considered the most reliable indicator of
long-term glycemic control. Fasting and random blood glucose values
only reflect short-term glucose levels.
, 5. A nurse is caring for a patient experiencing diabetic
ketoacidosis (DKA). Which intervention should the nurse
implement first?
A. Administer IV insulin B. Restrict oral fluids C. Begin IV fluid
replacement D. Provide a high-carbohydrate snack
Answer: C. Begin IV fluid replacement
Rationale: The priority treatment in DKA is restoring circulatory
volume with intravenous fluids because severe dehydration is life-
threatening. Insulin therapy follows fluid replacement. Restricting
fluids would worsen dehydration, and carbohydrates are not
appropriate during active DKA management.
6. Which instruction is most important for preventing diabetic
foot complications?
A. Walk barefoot daily to improve circulation B. Soak feet in hot
water every evening C. Inspect feet every day for cuts or blisters D.
Trim toenails deeply at the corners
Answer: C. Inspect feet every day for cuts or blisters
Rationale: Daily foot inspection helps identify injuries early before
they progress into ulcers or infections. Patients with neuropathy may
not feel injuries. Walking barefoot, soaking feet in hot water, and
improper nail trimming increase the risk of injury.
7. A patient asks why exercise lowers blood glucose levels. Which
response by the nurse is most accurate?
A. “Exercise prevents the liver from releasing glucose.” B. “Exercise
increases insulin resistance.” C. “Exercise helps muscles use glucose
for energy.” D. “Exercise destroys excess glucose in the
bloodstream.”
, Answer: C. “Exercise helps muscles use glucose for energy.”
Rationale: Physical activity increases glucose uptake by muscles,
which lowers blood glucose levels. Exercise also improves insulin
sensitivity. The other statements are scientifically inaccurate.
8. Which symptom is commonly associated with hyperglycemia?
A. Bradycardia B. Polyuria C. Moist skin D. Tremors
Answer: B. Polyuria
Rationale: Hyperglycemia causes osmotic diuresis, leading to
excessive urination. Other symptoms include polydipsia and
polyphagia. Tremors and moist skin are more typical of hypoglycemia.
9. Which patient is at greatest risk for developing type 2 diabetes
mellitus?
A. A physically active adolescent B. A patient with obesity and
sedentary lifestyle C. A marathon runner D. A patient with chronic
anemia
Answer: B. A patient with obesity and sedentary lifestyle
Rationale: Obesity and lack of physical activity are major risk factors
for insulin resistance and type 2 diabetes. Regular exercise lowers the
risk. Chronic anemia is not a primary risk factor.
10. A nurse is preparing to administer rapid-acting insulin.
When should the insulin be given?
A. One hour before meals B. Immediately after meals C. Within 15
minutes before meals D. At bedtime only
Answer: C. Within 15 minutes before meals
Question Practice Exam With Correct
Verified And Well Analyzed Answers |
Already Graded A+ | 2026 Update!!!
1. A nurse is teaching a patient newly diagnosed with type 1
diabetes mellitus about insulin therapy. Which statement by
the patient indicates correct understanding?
A. “I will only need insulin when my blood sugar is very high.” B.
“Insulin helps move glucose from the bloodstream into the cells.” C.
“Insulin can be stopped once my diet improves.” D. “Insulin
prevents the kidneys from filtering glucose.”
Answer: B. “Insulin helps move glucose from the bloodstream into
the cells.”
Rationale: Insulin facilitates the movement of glucose from the
bloodstream into body cells for energy use. Patients with type 1
diabetes cannot produce sufficient insulin and therefore require
lifelong insulin therapy. The other options are incorrect because
insulin is required consistently, not only during hyperglycemia, and it
does not directly prevent kidney filtration of glucose.
2. Which assessment finding is most consistent with
hypoglycemia?
A. Fruity breath odor B. Warm, dry skin C. Shakiness and
diaphoresis D. Deep, rapid respirations
,Answer: C. Shakiness and diaphoresis
Rationale: Hypoglycemia activates the sympathetic nervous system,
leading to shakiness, sweating, tachycardia, and anxiety. Fruity breath
odor and Kussmaul respirations are associated with diabetic
ketoacidosis. Warm, dry skin is more commonly associated with
hyperglycemia.
3. A patient with diabetes reports numbness and tingling in both
feet. Which complication does the nurse suspect?
A. Retinopathy B. Peripheral neuropathy C. Nephropathy D.
Coronary artery disease
Answer: B. Peripheral neuropathy
Rationale: Peripheral neuropathy is a common complication of
diabetes resulting from long-term hyperglycemia that damages nerves.
Symptoms include numbness, burning, tingling, and decreased
sensation in the extremities. Retinopathy affects vision, while
nephropathy affects kidney function.
4. Which laboratory value best reflects long-term blood glucose
control?
A. Fasting blood glucose B. Random blood glucose C. Hemoglobin
A1c D. Serum insulin level
Answer: C. Hemoglobin A1c
Rationale: Hemoglobin A1c reflects average blood glucose levels over
the previous 2–3 months. It is considered the most reliable indicator of
long-term glycemic control. Fasting and random blood glucose values
only reflect short-term glucose levels.
, 5. A nurse is caring for a patient experiencing diabetic
ketoacidosis (DKA). Which intervention should the nurse
implement first?
A. Administer IV insulin B. Restrict oral fluids C. Begin IV fluid
replacement D. Provide a high-carbohydrate snack
Answer: C. Begin IV fluid replacement
Rationale: The priority treatment in DKA is restoring circulatory
volume with intravenous fluids because severe dehydration is life-
threatening. Insulin therapy follows fluid replacement. Restricting
fluids would worsen dehydration, and carbohydrates are not
appropriate during active DKA management.
6. Which instruction is most important for preventing diabetic
foot complications?
A. Walk barefoot daily to improve circulation B. Soak feet in hot
water every evening C. Inspect feet every day for cuts or blisters D.
Trim toenails deeply at the corners
Answer: C. Inspect feet every day for cuts or blisters
Rationale: Daily foot inspection helps identify injuries early before
they progress into ulcers or infections. Patients with neuropathy may
not feel injuries. Walking barefoot, soaking feet in hot water, and
improper nail trimming increase the risk of injury.
7. A patient asks why exercise lowers blood glucose levels. Which
response by the nurse is most accurate?
A. “Exercise prevents the liver from releasing glucose.” B. “Exercise
increases insulin resistance.” C. “Exercise helps muscles use glucose
for energy.” D. “Exercise destroys excess glucose in the
bloodstream.”
, Answer: C. “Exercise helps muscles use glucose for energy.”
Rationale: Physical activity increases glucose uptake by muscles,
which lowers blood glucose levels. Exercise also improves insulin
sensitivity. The other statements are scientifically inaccurate.
8. Which symptom is commonly associated with hyperglycemia?
A. Bradycardia B. Polyuria C. Moist skin D. Tremors
Answer: B. Polyuria
Rationale: Hyperglycemia causes osmotic diuresis, leading to
excessive urination. Other symptoms include polydipsia and
polyphagia. Tremors and moist skin are more typical of hypoglycemia.
9. Which patient is at greatest risk for developing type 2 diabetes
mellitus?
A. A physically active adolescent B. A patient with obesity and
sedentary lifestyle C. A marathon runner D. A patient with chronic
anemia
Answer: B. A patient with obesity and sedentary lifestyle
Rationale: Obesity and lack of physical activity are major risk factors
for insulin resistance and type 2 diabetes. Regular exercise lowers the
risk. Chronic anemia is not a primary risk factor.
10. A nurse is preparing to administer rapid-acting insulin.
When should the insulin be given?
A. One hour before meals B. Immediately after meals C. Within 15
minutes before meals D. At bedtime only
Answer: C. Within 15 minutes before meals
