NR 293 Pharmacology - Antibiotics & Infection Treatment Practice
Pack 2026 |Chamberlain College
1. A nurse is preparing to administer the first dose of an intravenous antibiotic
to a client. Which action should the nurse take first?
A. Obtain the ordered culture and sensitivity specimens
B. Assess the client for a history of drug allergies
C. Educate the client on potential side effects
D. Verify the client’s identity using two identifiers
Answer: A
Rationale: While identifying the client and checking allergies are essential, obtaining the
culture and sensitivity specimens before the first dose of antibiotics ensures the organism
can be accurately identified without being suppressed by the medication.
2. A client with a known severe allergy to Penicillin G is prescribed Cefazolin.
What is the nurse’s priority action?
A. Notify the provider of the potential for cross-sensitivity
B. Monitor the client closely for the first 30 minutes of infusion
C. Administer the medication as it is a different class
D. Request a skin test for the cephalosporin
Answer: A
Rationale: There is a known cross-sensitivity between penicillins and cephalosporins due
to their similar beta-lactam ring structure; if the client has a severe allergy to PCN, the
provider should be notified.
,3. Which education point is most important for a client prescribed Tetracycline?
A. Take the medication with a full glass of milk
B. Restrict fluid intake to 1 liter per day
C. Expect orange-colored urine
D. Avoid direct sunlight and use sunscreen
Answer: D
Rationale: Tetracyclines cause photosensitivity, making the skin more susceptible to
severe sunburn. They should not be taken with dairy as it decreases absorption.
4. A nurse is monitoring a client receiving Gentamicin IV. Which lab value is the
most critical to monitor to prevent toxicity?
A. Serum creatinine
B. Prothrombin time
C. Serum potassium
D. White blood cell count
Answer: A
Rationale: Aminoglycosides like Gentamicin are highly nephrotoxic. Monitoring serum
creatinine and BUN is essential to evaluate kidney function.
5. A client taking Ciprofloxacin reports pain and swelling in the back of the
ankle. What is the nurse’s priority instruction?
A. Apply ice and continue taking the medication
B. Take an NSAID for the inflammation
C. Perform gentle stretching exercises
D. Stop the medication and avoid weight-bearing on that leg
Answer: D
Rationale: Fluoroquinolones carry a black box warning for tendon rupture, most
commonly the Achilles tendon. The client must stop the drug and rest the area.
, 6. Which adverse effect is specific to a rapid infusion of Vancomycin?
A. Ototoxicity
B. Hepatotoxicity
C. Red Man Syndrome
D. Crystalluria
Answer: C
Rationale: Red Man Syndrome is a flushing or rash of the upper body caused by rapid
infusion of Vancomycin; it is prevented by infusing the drug over at least 60 minutes.
7. A client is prescribed Metronidazole for a vaginal infection. Which substance
must the client avoid during therapy?
A. Grapefruit juice
B. Aged cheeses
C. Alcohol
D. Leafy green vegetables
Answer: C
Rationale: Metronidazole causes a disulfiram-like reaction when combined with alcohol,
leading to severe nausea, vomiting, and flushing.
8. What is the primary reason for encouraging high fluid intake in a client taking
Sulfamethoxazole-Trimethoprim?
A. To prevent hypertension
B. To decrease the risk of crystalluria
C. To prevent metabolic acidosis
D. To ensure the drug reaches the bladder
Answer: B
Rationale: Sulfonamides can precipitate in the kidneys, forming crystals. High fluid intake
(2-3 L/day) helps prevent crystalluria and renal stone formation.
Pack 2026 |Chamberlain College
1. A nurse is preparing to administer the first dose of an intravenous antibiotic
to a client. Which action should the nurse take first?
A. Obtain the ordered culture and sensitivity specimens
B. Assess the client for a history of drug allergies
C. Educate the client on potential side effects
D. Verify the client’s identity using two identifiers
Answer: A
Rationale: While identifying the client and checking allergies are essential, obtaining the
culture and sensitivity specimens before the first dose of antibiotics ensures the organism
can be accurately identified without being suppressed by the medication.
2. A client with a known severe allergy to Penicillin G is prescribed Cefazolin.
What is the nurse’s priority action?
A. Notify the provider of the potential for cross-sensitivity
B. Monitor the client closely for the first 30 minutes of infusion
C. Administer the medication as it is a different class
D. Request a skin test for the cephalosporin
Answer: A
Rationale: There is a known cross-sensitivity between penicillins and cephalosporins due
to their similar beta-lactam ring structure; if the client has a severe allergy to PCN, the
provider should be notified.
,3. Which education point is most important for a client prescribed Tetracycline?
A. Take the medication with a full glass of milk
B. Restrict fluid intake to 1 liter per day
C. Expect orange-colored urine
D. Avoid direct sunlight and use sunscreen
Answer: D
Rationale: Tetracyclines cause photosensitivity, making the skin more susceptible to
severe sunburn. They should not be taken with dairy as it decreases absorption.
4. A nurse is monitoring a client receiving Gentamicin IV. Which lab value is the
most critical to monitor to prevent toxicity?
A. Serum creatinine
B. Prothrombin time
C. Serum potassium
D. White blood cell count
Answer: A
Rationale: Aminoglycosides like Gentamicin are highly nephrotoxic. Monitoring serum
creatinine and BUN is essential to evaluate kidney function.
5. A client taking Ciprofloxacin reports pain and swelling in the back of the
ankle. What is the nurse’s priority instruction?
A. Apply ice and continue taking the medication
B. Take an NSAID for the inflammation
C. Perform gentle stretching exercises
D. Stop the medication and avoid weight-bearing on that leg
Answer: D
Rationale: Fluoroquinolones carry a black box warning for tendon rupture, most
commonly the Achilles tendon. The client must stop the drug and rest the area.
, 6. Which adverse effect is specific to a rapid infusion of Vancomycin?
A. Ototoxicity
B. Hepatotoxicity
C. Red Man Syndrome
D. Crystalluria
Answer: C
Rationale: Red Man Syndrome is a flushing or rash of the upper body caused by rapid
infusion of Vancomycin; it is prevented by infusing the drug over at least 60 minutes.
7. A client is prescribed Metronidazole for a vaginal infection. Which substance
must the client avoid during therapy?
A. Grapefruit juice
B. Aged cheeses
C. Alcohol
D. Leafy green vegetables
Answer: C
Rationale: Metronidazole causes a disulfiram-like reaction when combined with alcohol,
leading to severe nausea, vomiting, and flushing.
8. What is the primary reason for encouraging high fluid intake in a client taking
Sulfamethoxazole-Trimethoprim?
A. To prevent hypertension
B. To decrease the risk of crystalluria
C. To prevent metabolic acidosis
D. To ensure the drug reaches the bladder
Answer: B
Rationale: Sulfonamides can precipitate in the kidneys, forming crystals. High fluid intake
(2-3 L/day) helps prevent crystalluria and renal stone formation.
