CEA Prep: Full Practice Exam v3 EXAM NEWEST
2025/2026 COMPLETE ALL QUESTIONS AND CORRECT
DETAILED ANSWERS
Save
Terms in this set (324)
The patient is exhibiting a productiveLeft upper lobe lingula
cough and a low-grade fever. ChestRatonale: Lingular consolidation is described in
this X-ray on PA view shows a left lowerquestion precisely. If the cardiac
margin/silhouette chest area of consolidation adjacentis obliterated by the mass, the
lesion is either right to the left border of the heartmiddle lobe or left upper lobe lingula.
approximately 2 rib spaces above the
costophrenic angle. The lateral xray view
shows this lesion absent of the window
posterior to the cardiac silhouette. Which is
the most likely location of this area of focal
consolidation? *Left upper lobe apex
*Right middle lobe
*Left upper lobe lingula
*Left lower lobe
The inability to fully relax theDiastolic dysfunction myocardium during relaxation is
aRationale: The inability for the heart to relax is a trademark of which of the
followingtrademark of the diagnosis of diastolic dysfunction
diagnoses?and is common in patients with thickened
hypertrophic myocardium.
,An otherwise healthy AfricanCalcium channel blocker
American adult male has beenRationale: African American patients per JNC8 diagnosed with
hypertension. He hasHypertension Guidelines should be managed with been restricting
his salt intake, eatinga dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker such as a DASH (Dietary
Approaches to Stopamlodipine (Norvasc) as first line management Hypertension) diet, and
exercisingtherapy for hypertension not at goal with DASH more, but his blood pressure is stilland
lifestyle modifications.
elevated. Which is the BEST medication to
prescribe him?
Your patient has been diagnosedCT angiography of the chest with a 4.5cm ascending
aorticRationale: CT angiography is considered the aneurysm. Which medical imaging
isstandard of care for measuring vascular luminal considered standard of care
fordimensions with contrast. CT PE protocol is not serial surveillance?timed properly for the
aorta (it's timed for the
pulmonary artery). Although a plain film is able to
catch large aneurysms at times, they are not able to
provide multi-axis reconstruction needed to accurately
measure the size. Transesophageal echo is not needed
to accurately measure the aorta and requires the
patient to undergo sedation which is unnecessary.
Which of the following medicationsphenylephrine does not cause beta 1
stimulation?Rationale: Phenylephrine only stimulates alpha 1
receptors. The remaining three all have beta receptor
activity.
,A 50-year-old woman with a historyCongestive heart failure
of hypertension presents withRationale: Of the available options, the most dyspnea on exertion
and orthopnea.accurate response is congestive heart failure as it is On examination, she
has jugularsignifying both a right ventricular back up with venous distention and bilateraljugular
venous extension and crackles on lung crackles on lung auscultation. What isassault, which
are suggestive of left ventricular the most likely diagnosis?back up. it is possible the patient may
have an
acute myocardial infarction that precipitated this,
however, a patient has not described that, rather is
only describing dyspnea on exertion and orthopnea,
which both speak to a state of fluid overload. The only
appropriate response of these available is congestive
heart failure.
Your patient with a history of HFrEFOrdering a transthoracic echocardiogram and
(heart failure with reduced ejectionorder a Lifevest if EF is less than 35% fraction) with an
ejection fraction ofRationale: The patient should have a protective 40% who is also not on
optimalmechanism such as an implantable automated medical therapy has been
diagnosedcardioverter defibrillator (AICD) or a Lifevest if the with a myocardial infarction thisEF
is less than 35% due to the increased risk of admission and received emergentsudden cardiac
death with low EF states. Since placement of a drug-eluting stent tomost patients are not
eligible for 90 days for an the left anterior descending artery.AICD in this state, optimizing their
medication
As the medical home who willregimen and repeating an echo in 2-3 months to manage this
patient after discharge,re-evaluate for improvement in their EF is required which medication
strategy wouldby most insurance companies. A baseline echo is you expect to be a
priority in theneeded at discharge to provide a baseline for patient's care?improvement vs
their repeat echo in 2-3 months.
Dual anti-platelet therapy is required for 12 months
minimum post-MI.
A Holter monitor does not provide any conceivable
benefit for this patient as presented.
, Which of the following peopleCaucasians
groups represent the least risk ofRationale: Statistically African Americans, Native
cardiac disease?Hawaiians, and American Indians are at at
increased risk of cardiac disease due to higher rates of
hypertension, diabetes, and obesity than Caucasians.
A 65-year-old woman presents for aa statin drug.
follow-up examination. She is aRationale: Bile acid sequestrants and cholesterol smoker, and her
hypertension is nowabsorption inhibitors may be useful in reducing adequately controlled
withASVD risk, but for a patient who is an active smoker medication. Her mother died at agewith
premature coronary disease history (less than 40 from a heart attack. The fastingage 65 for
women), has hypertension and is far lipid profile shows cholesterol = 240from an LDL goal, this
patient is most certainly a mg/dL, HDL = 30, and LDL = 200. Incandidate for statin therapy, which
represents the addition to starting therapeuticmost aggressive therapy option of these
four listed.
lifestyle changes, the nurse practitioner
should start the patient on:
Which of the following end-organPeripheral neuropathy sequelae is not directly caused
byRatioanle: Although patients with hypertension uncontrolled hypertension?
frequently have peripheral neuropathy, it is only
directly attributed to patients who are also diabetic and
is commonly found in non-hypertensive diabetic
patients. Proteinuria, AV nicking, and hemorrhagic
stroke are all caused by uncontrolled hypertension.
2025/2026 COMPLETE ALL QUESTIONS AND CORRECT
DETAILED ANSWERS
Save
Terms in this set (324)
The patient is exhibiting a productiveLeft upper lobe lingula
cough and a low-grade fever. ChestRatonale: Lingular consolidation is described in
this X-ray on PA view shows a left lowerquestion precisely. If the cardiac
margin/silhouette chest area of consolidation adjacentis obliterated by the mass, the
lesion is either right to the left border of the heartmiddle lobe or left upper lobe lingula.
approximately 2 rib spaces above the
costophrenic angle. The lateral xray view
shows this lesion absent of the window
posterior to the cardiac silhouette. Which is
the most likely location of this area of focal
consolidation? *Left upper lobe apex
*Right middle lobe
*Left upper lobe lingula
*Left lower lobe
The inability to fully relax theDiastolic dysfunction myocardium during relaxation is
aRationale: The inability for the heart to relax is a trademark of which of the
followingtrademark of the diagnosis of diastolic dysfunction
diagnoses?and is common in patients with thickened
hypertrophic myocardium.
,An otherwise healthy AfricanCalcium channel blocker
American adult male has beenRationale: African American patients per JNC8 diagnosed with
hypertension. He hasHypertension Guidelines should be managed with been restricting
his salt intake, eatinga dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker such as a DASH (Dietary
Approaches to Stopamlodipine (Norvasc) as first line management Hypertension) diet, and
exercisingtherapy for hypertension not at goal with DASH more, but his blood pressure is stilland
lifestyle modifications.
elevated. Which is the BEST medication to
prescribe him?
Your patient has been diagnosedCT angiography of the chest with a 4.5cm ascending
aorticRationale: CT angiography is considered the aneurysm. Which medical imaging
isstandard of care for measuring vascular luminal considered standard of care
fordimensions with contrast. CT PE protocol is not serial surveillance?timed properly for the
aorta (it's timed for the
pulmonary artery). Although a plain film is able to
catch large aneurysms at times, they are not able to
provide multi-axis reconstruction needed to accurately
measure the size. Transesophageal echo is not needed
to accurately measure the aorta and requires the
patient to undergo sedation which is unnecessary.
Which of the following medicationsphenylephrine does not cause beta 1
stimulation?Rationale: Phenylephrine only stimulates alpha 1
receptors. The remaining three all have beta receptor
activity.
,A 50-year-old woman with a historyCongestive heart failure
of hypertension presents withRationale: Of the available options, the most dyspnea on exertion
and orthopnea.accurate response is congestive heart failure as it is On examination, she
has jugularsignifying both a right ventricular back up with venous distention and bilateraljugular
venous extension and crackles on lung crackles on lung auscultation. What isassault, which
are suggestive of left ventricular the most likely diagnosis?back up. it is possible the patient may
have an
acute myocardial infarction that precipitated this,
however, a patient has not described that, rather is
only describing dyspnea on exertion and orthopnea,
which both speak to a state of fluid overload. The only
appropriate response of these available is congestive
heart failure.
Your patient with a history of HFrEFOrdering a transthoracic echocardiogram and
(heart failure with reduced ejectionorder a Lifevest if EF is less than 35% fraction) with an
ejection fraction ofRationale: The patient should have a protective 40% who is also not on
optimalmechanism such as an implantable automated medical therapy has been
diagnosedcardioverter defibrillator (AICD) or a Lifevest if the with a myocardial infarction thisEF
is less than 35% due to the increased risk of admission and received emergentsudden cardiac
death with low EF states. Since placement of a drug-eluting stent tomost patients are not
eligible for 90 days for an the left anterior descending artery.AICD in this state, optimizing their
medication
As the medical home who willregimen and repeating an echo in 2-3 months to manage this
patient after discharge,re-evaluate for improvement in their EF is required which medication
strategy wouldby most insurance companies. A baseline echo is you expect to be a
priority in theneeded at discharge to provide a baseline for patient's care?improvement vs
their repeat echo in 2-3 months.
Dual anti-platelet therapy is required for 12 months
minimum post-MI.
A Holter monitor does not provide any conceivable
benefit for this patient as presented.
, Which of the following peopleCaucasians
groups represent the least risk ofRationale: Statistically African Americans, Native
cardiac disease?Hawaiians, and American Indians are at at
increased risk of cardiac disease due to higher rates of
hypertension, diabetes, and obesity than Caucasians.
A 65-year-old woman presents for aa statin drug.
follow-up examination. She is aRationale: Bile acid sequestrants and cholesterol smoker, and her
hypertension is nowabsorption inhibitors may be useful in reducing adequately controlled
withASVD risk, but for a patient who is an active smoker medication. Her mother died at agewith
premature coronary disease history (less than 40 from a heart attack. The fastingage 65 for
women), has hypertension and is far lipid profile shows cholesterol = 240from an LDL goal, this
patient is most certainly a mg/dL, HDL = 30, and LDL = 200. Incandidate for statin therapy, which
represents the addition to starting therapeuticmost aggressive therapy option of these
four listed.
lifestyle changes, the nurse practitioner
should start the patient on:
Which of the following end-organPeripheral neuropathy sequelae is not directly caused
byRatioanle: Although patients with hypertension uncontrolled hypertension?
frequently have peripheral neuropathy, it is only
directly attributed to patients who are also diabetic and
is commonly found in non-hypertensive diabetic
patients. Proteinuria, AV nicking, and hemorrhagic
stroke are all caused by uncontrolled hypertension.
