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NUR 445 Exam 3: Acute & Chronic Health Disruptions In Adults III V3 - Arizona College Updated and Latest Questions and Correct Answers with Rationale

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NUR 445 Exam 3: Acute & Chronic Health Disruptions In Adults III V3 - Arizona College Updated and Latest Questions and Correct Answers with Rationale

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NUR 445 Exam 3: Acute & Chronic Health Disruptions In
Adults III V3 - Arizona College Updated and Latest
Questions and Correct Answers with Rationale
1. A patient in the intensive care unit is being monitored with a pulmonary artery catheter. The nurse notes

a Pulmonary Artery Wedge Pressure (PAWP) of 22 mmHg. Which clinical manifestation should the nurse

expect to find during the assessment?

A. Flat neck veins and dry mucous membranes


B. Decreased cardiac output and peripheral edema


C. Bilateral crackles and dyspnea


D. Hyperactive bowel sounds and increased urine output


Ans: C


Explanation: A normal PAWP ranges from 6 to 12 mmHg, meaning a value of 22 mmHg indicates

significant left ventricular fluid overload. This elevation causes fluid to back up into the pulmonary

vasculature, leading to pulmonary edema. The nurse would expect to hear crackles upon auscultation due

to the presence of fluid in the alveoli. This condition is a hallmark of cardiogenic shock or severe left-

sided heart failure. Prompt intervention with diuretics or vasodilators is typically required to reduce

preload.


2. The nurse is caring for a client with septic shock. Despite adequate fluid resuscitation with 30 mL/kg of

crystalloids, the client’s Mean Arterial Pressure (MAP) remains 52 mmHg. What is the priority nursing

intervention?

A. Start an infusion of Norepinephrine


B. Administer an additional 1 liter of Normal Saline


C. Increase the IV maintenance rate

,D. Administer intravenous Furosemide


Ans: A


Explanation: Septic shock is characterized by persistent hypotension that does not respond to fluid

resuscitation. Once the fluid bolus is completed and the MAP remains below 65 mmHg, vasopressors are

indicated. Norepinephrine is considered the first-line vasopressor to restore vascular tone and improve

perfusion. Delaying vasopressor therapy can lead to irreversible organ damage due to prolonged

hypoperfusion. The nurse must monitor the infusion site closely to prevent tissue necrosis from

extravasation.


3. A client is admitted with Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome (ARDS) and is placed on mechanical

ventilation with High Positive End-Expiratory Pressure (PEEP). What is the primary complication the nurse

must monitor for related to high PEEP?

A. Increased cardiac output


B. Pneumothorax due to barotrauma


C. Metabolic alkalosis


D. Respiratory muscle atrophy


Ans: B


Explanation: High PEEP levels are used to keep alveoli open and improve oxygenation in ARDS patients.

However, excessive pressure can lead to barotrauma, which may manifest as a pneumothorax or

subcutaneous emphysema. This pressure can also decrease venous return to the heart, potentially

lowering the cardiac output. The nurse must frequently assess breath sounds and monitor for sudden

drops in oxygen saturation. Providing the minimum amount of PEEP necessary to maintain adequate

PaO2 is the clinical goal.

, 4. A patient with Acute Kidney Injury (AKI) has a potassium level of 6.8 mEq/L and shows peaked T-waves

on the ECG. Which medication should the nurse expect to administer first to protect the heart?

A. Sodium Polystyrene Sulfonate (Kayexalate)


B. Regular Insulin and Dextrose 50%


C. Sodium Bicarbonate


D. Calcium Gluconate


Ans: D


Explanation: Hyperkalemia is a life-threatening complication of AKI that causes cardiac excitability.

Calcium Gluconate does not lower potassium levels but stabilizes the myocardial cell membrane to

prevent lethal arrhythmias. While insulin and Kayexalate are used to actually lower potassium, they do

not act as quickly to protect the heart. The nurse must prioritize cardiac stability in the presence of ECG

changes. Following calcium administration, other therapies to shift or remove potassium are initiated

immediately.


5. The nurse is managing a client with Diabetic Ketoacidosis (DKA). The current blood glucose is 240 mg/dL,

down from 550 mg/dL. What should be the nurse’s next action regarding IV fluids?

A. Stop the insulin infusion immediately


B. Increase the rate of Normal Saline


C. Switch to a solution containing 5% Dextrose


D. Administer a glucagon injection


Ans: C


Explanation: In DKA management, when blood glucose levels reach approximately 200-250 mg/dL,

dextrose is added to the IV fluids. This prevents a rapid drop in glucose which could lead to cerebral

Información del documento

Subido en
12 de abril de 2026
Número de páginas
30
Escrito en
2025/2026
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