NR607 FINAL EXAM 2026 | VERIFIED
QUESTIONS & CORRECT ANSWERS | A+
PASS STUDY GUIDE
NR607 FINAL EXAM 2026 | VERIFIED QUESTIONS & CORRECT ANSWER | A+
PASS STUDY GUIDE
This study guide contains 300 high-yield multiple-choice questions designed to
sharpen your clinical reasoning for the NR607 Final Exam. Read each question
carefully, attempt an answer before checking the correct option, and study
the EXPERT RATIONALE to reinforce understanding.
Question 1: A 34-year-old patient presents with depressed mood, anhedonia,
hypersomnia, increased appetite, and leaden paralysis for 3 weeks. Which specifier
best describes this presentation?
A. With anxious distress
B. With melancholic features
C. With psychotic features
D. With atypical features
E. With mixed features
CORRECT ANSWER: D. With atypical features
EXPERT RATIONALE: Atypical features of MDD include mood reactivity plus at least
two of: increased appetite/weight, hypersomnia, leaden paralysis, and
interpersonal rejection sensitivity. This patient meets the criteria.
Question 2: A patient with MDD has failed two adequate SSRI trials. The PMHNP
considers augmentation. Which agent is FDA-approved for adjunctive treatment of
MDD?
A. Buspirone
B. Lithium
,C. Aripiprazole
D. Gabapentin
E. Clonazepam
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Aripiprazole
EXPERT RATIONALE: Aripiprazole (Abilify) is FDA-approved as adjunctive therapy
for MDD in adults who have had an inadequate response to antidepressants alone.
Question 3: Which of the following best describes the mechanism of action of
SSRIs?
A. Block reuptake of norepinephrine and dopamine
B. Inhibit monoamine oxidase A and B
C. Block presynaptic serotonin autoreceptors
D. Selectively inhibit serotonin reuptake at the presynaptic terminal
E. Antagonize serotonin 5-HT2A receptors
CORRECT ANSWER: D. Selectively inhibit serotonin reuptake at the
presynaptic terminal
EXPERT RATIONALE: SSRIs work by selectively blocking the serotonin transporter
(SERT) at the presynaptic neuron, increasing serotonin availability in the synapse.
Question 4: A 28-year-old woman presents with recurrent, unexpected panic
attacks and persistent worry about future attacks for 2 months. What is the most
appropriate first-line pharmacologic treatment?
A. Alprazolam
B. Buspirone
C. Sertraline
D. Haloperidol
,E. Valproate
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Sertraline
EXPERT RATIONALE: SSRIs such as sertraline are first-line pharmacotherapy for
panic disorder. Benzodiazepines like alprazolam are avoided long-term due to
dependence risk.
Question 5: A patient taking phenelzine eats aged cheese and develops severe
hypertensive crisis. What is the mechanism?
A. Serotonin syndrome from excess 5-HT
B. Accumulation of tyramine due to MAO inhibition
C. Dopamine excess from reuptake blockade
D. Norepinephrine release from adrenal medulla
E. Inhibition of CYP2D6 metabolism
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Accumulation of tyramine due to MAO inhibition
EXPERT RATIONALE: MAOIs inhibit the enzyme that normally breaks down
tyramine in the gut and liver. Ingesting tyramine-rich foods leads to massive
norepinephrine release and hypertensive crisis.
Question 6: Which of the following antidepressants carries a black box warning for
hepatotoxicity?
A. Fluoxetine
B. Bupropion
C. Nefazodone
D. Mirtazapine
E. Venlafaxine
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Nefazodone
, EXPERT RATIONALE: Nefazodone carries an FDA black box warning for life-
threatening hepatic failure, which led to its voluntary withdrawal from the US
market by the brand manufacturer.
Question 7: A 45-year-old man with MDD and chronic neuropathic pain would
benefit most from which antidepressant?
A. Fluoxetine
B. Duloxetine
C. Citalopram
D. Fluvoxamine
E. Paroxetine
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Duloxetine
EXPERT RATIONALE: Duloxetine (SNRI) is FDA-approved for both MDD and diabetic
peripheral neuropathic pain, making it the best dual-benefit choice for this patient.
Question 8: Which DSM-5 criterion requires symptoms of major depressive
disorder to be present for at least how long?
A. 1 week
B. 2 weeks
C. 1 month
D. 6 months
E. 3 months
CORRECT ANSWER: B. 2 weeks
EXPERT RATIONALE: DSM-5 requires at least 5 of 9 depressive symptoms nearly
every day for a minimum of 2 weeks for the diagnosis of Major Depressive
Disorder.
QUESTIONS & CORRECT ANSWERS | A+
PASS STUDY GUIDE
NR607 FINAL EXAM 2026 | VERIFIED QUESTIONS & CORRECT ANSWER | A+
PASS STUDY GUIDE
This study guide contains 300 high-yield multiple-choice questions designed to
sharpen your clinical reasoning for the NR607 Final Exam. Read each question
carefully, attempt an answer before checking the correct option, and study
the EXPERT RATIONALE to reinforce understanding.
Question 1: A 34-year-old patient presents with depressed mood, anhedonia,
hypersomnia, increased appetite, and leaden paralysis for 3 weeks. Which specifier
best describes this presentation?
A. With anxious distress
B. With melancholic features
C. With psychotic features
D. With atypical features
E. With mixed features
CORRECT ANSWER: D. With atypical features
EXPERT RATIONALE: Atypical features of MDD include mood reactivity plus at least
two of: increased appetite/weight, hypersomnia, leaden paralysis, and
interpersonal rejection sensitivity. This patient meets the criteria.
Question 2: A patient with MDD has failed two adequate SSRI trials. The PMHNP
considers augmentation. Which agent is FDA-approved for adjunctive treatment of
MDD?
A. Buspirone
B. Lithium
,C. Aripiprazole
D. Gabapentin
E. Clonazepam
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Aripiprazole
EXPERT RATIONALE: Aripiprazole (Abilify) is FDA-approved as adjunctive therapy
for MDD in adults who have had an inadequate response to antidepressants alone.
Question 3: Which of the following best describes the mechanism of action of
SSRIs?
A. Block reuptake of norepinephrine and dopamine
B. Inhibit monoamine oxidase A and B
C. Block presynaptic serotonin autoreceptors
D. Selectively inhibit serotonin reuptake at the presynaptic terminal
E. Antagonize serotonin 5-HT2A receptors
CORRECT ANSWER: D. Selectively inhibit serotonin reuptake at the
presynaptic terminal
EXPERT RATIONALE: SSRIs work by selectively blocking the serotonin transporter
(SERT) at the presynaptic neuron, increasing serotonin availability in the synapse.
Question 4: A 28-year-old woman presents with recurrent, unexpected panic
attacks and persistent worry about future attacks for 2 months. What is the most
appropriate first-line pharmacologic treatment?
A. Alprazolam
B. Buspirone
C. Sertraline
D. Haloperidol
,E. Valproate
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Sertraline
EXPERT RATIONALE: SSRIs such as sertraline are first-line pharmacotherapy for
panic disorder. Benzodiazepines like alprazolam are avoided long-term due to
dependence risk.
Question 5: A patient taking phenelzine eats aged cheese and develops severe
hypertensive crisis. What is the mechanism?
A. Serotonin syndrome from excess 5-HT
B. Accumulation of tyramine due to MAO inhibition
C. Dopamine excess from reuptake blockade
D. Norepinephrine release from adrenal medulla
E. Inhibition of CYP2D6 metabolism
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Accumulation of tyramine due to MAO inhibition
EXPERT RATIONALE: MAOIs inhibit the enzyme that normally breaks down
tyramine in the gut and liver. Ingesting tyramine-rich foods leads to massive
norepinephrine release and hypertensive crisis.
Question 6: Which of the following antidepressants carries a black box warning for
hepatotoxicity?
A. Fluoxetine
B. Bupropion
C. Nefazodone
D. Mirtazapine
E. Venlafaxine
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Nefazodone
, EXPERT RATIONALE: Nefazodone carries an FDA black box warning for life-
threatening hepatic failure, which led to its voluntary withdrawal from the US
market by the brand manufacturer.
Question 7: A 45-year-old man with MDD and chronic neuropathic pain would
benefit most from which antidepressant?
A. Fluoxetine
B. Duloxetine
C. Citalopram
D. Fluvoxamine
E. Paroxetine
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Duloxetine
EXPERT RATIONALE: Duloxetine (SNRI) is FDA-approved for both MDD and diabetic
peripheral neuropathic pain, making it the best dual-benefit choice for this patient.
Question 8: Which DSM-5 criterion requires symptoms of major depressive
disorder to be present for at least how long?
A. 1 week
B. 2 weeks
C. 1 month
D. 6 months
E. 3 months
CORRECT ANSWER: B. 2 weeks
EXPERT RATIONALE: DSM-5 requires at least 5 of 9 depressive symptoms nearly
every day for a minimum of 2 weeks for the diagnosis of Major Depressive
Disorder.
