NR 283 Exam 2: Pathophysiology V2 Updated and Latest
Questions and Correct Answers with Rationale -
Chamberlain University
1. A patient’s EKG shows tall, peaked T-waves. Which electrolyte imbalance should the nurse
suspect?
A. Hypokalemia
B. Hyponatremia
C. Hyperkalemia
D. Hypocalcemia
Ans: C
Rationale: Hyperkalemia is characterized by a serum potassium level above the normal range. The
elevation of potassium affects the repolarization phase of the cardiac action potential. Peaked T-waves
are one of the earliest signs seen on an electrocardiogram for this condition. If left untreated, it can
progress to QRS widening and cardiac arrest. This differs from hypokalemia, which typically presents
with flattened T-waves or U-waves. Identifying these changes quickly is essential for preventing lethal
arrhythmias.
,2. Which immunoglobulin is primarily responsible for Type I Hypersensitivity reactions?
A. IgG
B. IgM
C. IgA
D. IgE
Ans: D
Rationale: Type I hypersensitivity is an immediate allergic reaction mediated by IgE antibodies. These
antibodies bind to mast cells and basophils upon the first exposure to an allergen. Subsequent exposure
triggers the release of histamine and other inflammatory mediators. This process can lead to symptoms
ranging from mild hay fever to life-threatening anaphylaxis. IgG and IgM are more commonly associated
with Type II and Type III reactions. Understanding this mechanism helps in the management of acute
allergic emergencies.
3. A patient is hyperventilating due to extreme anxiety. What acid-base imbalance is likely to
occur?
A. Respiratory Acidosis
B. Respiratory Alkalosis
C. Metabolic Acidosis
D. Metabolic Alkalosis
Ans: B
,Rationale: Hyperventilation causes an excessive loss of carbon dioxide from the lungs. Since CO2 acts as
an acid in the body, its depletion leads to an increase in blood pH. This shift toward a more basic state is
known as respiratory alkalosis. Common symptoms include lightheadedness, tingling in the extremities,
and muscle twitching. Treatment usually focuses on calming the patient or having them breathe into a
paper bag to retain CO2. In contrast, respiratory acidosis occurs when CO2 is retained due to
hypoventilation.
4. Which of the following is a characteristic of a malignant tumor?
A. Well-differentiated cells
B. Ability to metastasize
C. Slow rate of growth
D. Encapsulated growth
Ans: B
Rationale: Malignant tumors are defined by their ability to invade surrounding tissues and spread to
distant sites. This process of spreading is known as metastasis and occurs via the blood or lymphatic
system. Unlike benign tumors, malignant cells are often poorly differentiated or undifferentiated. They
typically grow rapidly and lack a distinct capsule, making them harder to remove surgically. Benign
tumors generally remain localized and do not pose the same systemic threat. Determining the malignancy
of a tumor is crucial for planning appropriate oncological treatment.
, 5. According to the CDC, at what CD4+ T-cell count is a patient with HIV diagnosed with
AIDS?
A. Less than 200 cells/mm3
B. Less than 500 cells/mm3
C. Between 200 and 800 cells/mm3
D. More than 1000 cells/mm3
Ans: A
Rationale: The progression from HIV to AIDS is clinically defined by a significant drop in the CD4+ T-cell
count. A count below 200 cells/mm3 indicates that the immune system is severely compromised. At this
stage, the body becomes highly susceptible to opportunistic infections and certain cancers. The patient
may also be diagnosed with AIDS if they develop an AIDS-defining illness regardless of the cell count.
Early intervention with antiretroviral therapy aims to keep the CD4 count high and the viral load low.
Monitoring these levels is a standard part of long-term HIV management.
6. What is the primary cause of edema in a patient with liver failure and low albumin levels?
A. Increased capillary hydrostatic pressure
B. Decreased capillary oncotic pressure
C. Lymphatic obstruction
D. Increased capillary permeability
Ans: B
Questions and Correct Answers with Rationale -
Chamberlain University
1. A patient’s EKG shows tall, peaked T-waves. Which electrolyte imbalance should the nurse
suspect?
A. Hypokalemia
B. Hyponatremia
C. Hyperkalemia
D. Hypocalcemia
Ans: C
Rationale: Hyperkalemia is characterized by a serum potassium level above the normal range. The
elevation of potassium affects the repolarization phase of the cardiac action potential. Peaked T-waves
are one of the earliest signs seen on an electrocardiogram for this condition. If left untreated, it can
progress to QRS widening and cardiac arrest. This differs from hypokalemia, which typically presents
with flattened T-waves or U-waves. Identifying these changes quickly is essential for preventing lethal
arrhythmias.
,2. Which immunoglobulin is primarily responsible for Type I Hypersensitivity reactions?
A. IgG
B. IgM
C. IgA
D. IgE
Ans: D
Rationale: Type I hypersensitivity is an immediate allergic reaction mediated by IgE antibodies. These
antibodies bind to mast cells and basophils upon the first exposure to an allergen. Subsequent exposure
triggers the release of histamine and other inflammatory mediators. This process can lead to symptoms
ranging from mild hay fever to life-threatening anaphylaxis. IgG and IgM are more commonly associated
with Type II and Type III reactions. Understanding this mechanism helps in the management of acute
allergic emergencies.
3. A patient is hyperventilating due to extreme anxiety. What acid-base imbalance is likely to
occur?
A. Respiratory Acidosis
B. Respiratory Alkalosis
C. Metabolic Acidosis
D. Metabolic Alkalosis
Ans: B
,Rationale: Hyperventilation causes an excessive loss of carbon dioxide from the lungs. Since CO2 acts as
an acid in the body, its depletion leads to an increase in blood pH. This shift toward a more basic state is
known as respiratory alkalosis. Common symptoms include lightheadedness, tingling in the extremities,
and muscle twitching. Treatment usually focuses on calming the patient or having them breathe into a
paper bag to retain CO2. In contrast, respiratory acidosis occurs when CO2 is retained due to
hypoventilation.
4. Which of the following is a characteristic of a malignant tumor?
A. Well-differentiated cells
B. Ability to metastasize
C. Slow rate of growth
D. Encapsulated growth
Ans: B
Rationale: Malignant tumors are defined by their ability to invade surrounding tissues and spread to
distant sites. This process of spreading is known as metastasis and occurs via the blood or lymphatic
system. Unlike benign tumors, malignant cells are often poorly differentiated or undifferentiated. They
typically grow rapidly and lack a distinct capsule, making them harder to remove surgically. Benign
tumors generally remain localized and do not pose the same systemic threat. Determining the malignancy
of a tumor is crucial for planning appropriate oncological treatment.
, 5. According to the CDC, at what CD4+ T-cell count is a patient with HIV diagnosed with
AIDS?
A. Less than 200 cells/mm3
B. Less than 500 cells/mm3
C. Between 200 and 800 cells/mm3
D. More than 1000 cells/mm3
Ans: A
Rationale: The progression from HIV to AIDS is clinically defined by a significant drop in the CD4+ T-cell
count. A count below 200 cells/mm3 indicates that the immune system is severely compromised. At this
stage, the body becomes highly susceptible to opportunistic infections and certain cancers. The patient
may also be diagnosed with AIDS if they develop an AIDS-defining illness regardless of the cell count.
Early intervention with antiretroviral therapy aims to keep the CD4 count high and the viral load low.
Monitoring these levels is a standard part of long-term HIV management.
6. What is the primary cause of edema in a patient with liver failure and low albumin levels?
A. Increased capillary hydrostatic pressure
B. Decreased capillary oncotic pressure
C. Lymphatic obstruction
D. Increased capillary permeability
Ans: B
