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Examen

NR-283 Exam 1: Pathophysiology V3 Updated and Latest Questions and Correct Answers with Rationale - Chamberlain University

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NR-283 Exam 1: Pathophysiology V3 Updated and Latest Questions and Correct Answers with Rationale - Chamberlain University

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NR-283 Exam 1: Pathophysiology V3 Updated and Latest
Questions and Correct Answers with Rationale -
Chamberlain University
1. A patient with chronic smoking history shows a change in bronchial epithelium from
ciliated columnar to stratified squamous cells. What is this adaptation called?

A. Atrophy

B. Hypertrophy

C. Dysplasia

D. Metaplasia

Ans: D
Rationale: Metaplasia is the reversible replacement of one mature cell type by another adult cell type.

This process is usually a response to chronic irritation or inflammation in the tissue. In smokers, the

fragile columnar cells are replaced by tougher squamous cells to survive. However, this change results in

the loss of vital functions like mucus secretion and cilia movement. Other adaptations like atrophy

involve a decrease in cell size rather than type. Recognizing metaplasia is essential as it can be a

precursor to cancerous changes if the irritant persists.


2. Which of the following describes hypertrophy?

A. Increase in the number of cells

B. Increase in the size of cells

C. Decrease in the size of cells

D. Replacement of one cell type with another

Ans: B
Rationale: Hypertrophy is defined as an increase in the size of individual cells, which leads to an increase
in the size of the organ. This commonly occurs in tissues that cannot undergo mitotic division, such as
cardiac and skeletal muscle. It is often a response to increased workload or physical demand placed on
the tissue. For example, the left ventricle of the heart undergoes hypertrophy in response to chronic
hypertension. This differs from hyperplasia, which involves an increase in the total number of cells.
Understanding this distinction helps clinicians evaluate organ enlargement and its functional
implications.

,3. A patient’s pathology report identifies ‘dysplasia’ in a cervical biopsy. What does this term
indicate?

A. Normal programmed cell death

B. Disordered growth and maturation of an epithelium

C. Uniform increase in cell number

D. A reversible change to a different cell type

Ans: B
Rationale: Dysplasia refers to abnormal changes in the size, shape, and organization of mature cells. It is

often characterized by a loss of architectural symmetry and cellular uniformity within a tissue. While

dysplasia is not cancer itself, it is frequently considered a precancerous condition that requires close

monitoring. It commonly occurs in the cervix or respiratory tract in response to chronic irritation or

infection. Unlike metaplasia, dysplasia involves disordered growth rather than a simple cell type

substitution. Clinical interventions are often aimed at removing the stimulus or treating the dysplastic

tissue to prevent malignancy.


4. What is the most common cause of cellular injury?

A. Infectious agents

B. Chemical agents

C. Genetic defects

D. Hypoxia

Ans: D
Rationale: Hypoxia, or lack of sufficient oxygen, is the most frequent cause of cell injury in clinical
practice. It can result from reduced oxygen in the air, loss of hemoglobin, or decreased blood flow.
Without oxygen, the cell cannot produce ATP, leading to failure of the sodium-potassium pump. This
failure causes the cell to swell with water, eventually leading to structural damage and possible death.
While chemical agents and infections are significant causes, hypoxia underlies many common conditions
like ischemia and infarction. Preventing prolonged hypoxia is a primary goal in emergency and critical
care medicine.

, 5. Which process is characterized by programmed cell death that does not cause
inflammation?

A. Necrosis

B. Autolysis

C. Infarction

D. Apoptosis

Ans: D
Rationale: Apoptosis is a distinct type of cell death that is genetically programmed and highly regulated.
It allows the body to remove old, damaged, or unnecessary cells without releasing harmful contents into
the environment. Because the cell fragments are contained in apoptotic bodies, no inflammatory
response is triggered in the surrounding tissue. This process is essential for normal development, such as
the formation of fingers in a fetus. In contrast, necrosis is accidental cell death that causes swelling and
triggers an acute inflammatory response. Distinguishing between these two types of death helps
understand various pathological and physiological states.

6. What are the five cardinal signs of acute inflammation?

A. Redness, itching, heat, bruising, scarring

B. Fever, chills, redness, pus, numbness

C. Pallor, coolness, pain, swelling, drainage

D. Redness, swelling, heat, pain, loss of function

Ans: D
Rationale: Acute inflammation is characterized by five classic local symptoms that reflect the underlying
vascular changes. Redness and heat are caused by increased blood flow to the injured area through
vasodilation. Swelling results from increased capillary permeability, allowing fluid to leak into the
interstitial spaces. Pain is triggered by the release of chemical mediators like bradykinin and pressure on
nerve endings. Loss of function occurs as a protective mechanism to prevent further injury to the affected
part. These signs serve as a diagnostic hallmark for clinicians assessing tissue damage or infection.

7. Which chemical mediator is primarily responsible for the immediate vasodilation and
increased vascular permeability in inflammation?

A. Leukotrienes

B. Histamine

C. Prostacyclin

D. Cytokines

Ans: B

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Subido en
1 de abril de 2026
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2025/2026
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