D115 master set-Advanced
Pathophysiology for the Advanced
Practice Nurse
Which type of genetic disease affects males more frequently than females? -
Answer--Sex-Linked recessive. Since males only have one X and one Y, if the affected
chromosome has the illness, it will be expressed.
In which two conditions are chromosomal abnormalities the leading known cause? -
Answer--Intellectual disability and fetal miscarriage. Chromosome abnormalities are the
leading known cause of intellectual disability and fetal miscarriage.
What are three examples of prenatal diagnostic studies? - Answer--Chorionic villus
sampling (CVS), amniocentesis, and preimplantation genetic testing (PGT) are
examples of prenatal diagnostic studies and are performed in vitro. CVS is a form of
genetic testing that provides genetic information found in utero and is usually performed
between weeks 11 and 14 of pregnancy. An amniocentesis is a form of genetic testing
that evaluates amniotic fluid and is usually performed during the second trimester,
between weeks 15 and 20 of pregnancy. PGT is performed on the embryo prior to
implantation.
Which genetic disorder is characterized by the presence of a zygote having one
chromosome with a normal complement of genes and one chromosome with a missing
gene? - Answer--Cri du chat syndrome (translated as "cry of the cat") is caused by a
DNA deletion. This term describes the cry often heard from a baby affected by the
,syndrome. Cri du chat syndrome can present as a microcephalic, low birth-weight baby
with a piercing cry.
How can an X-linked recessive disease skip generations? - Answer--The disease can
be transmitted through female carriers.
Since females have two copies of the X chromosome, the mother may provide an
unaffected X to a daughter or son. Furthermore, a daughter may not show signs of the
disease because she has the other X (the only X the father can give to a female) to
cancel it out.
Which type of risk is referred to as the ratio of the disease rate among the entire
population to the disease rate in an unexposed population? - Answer--Relative risk is a
ratio of probability, not an actual occurrence of disease.
What are the empirical risks for most multifactorial diseases based on? - Answer--Many
factors from lifestyle to genetics affect multifactorial diseases. Observation and
evaluation of each case individually provides the most thorough and accurate
assessment.
What refers to the silenced gene of a gene pair. - Answer--The imprinted gene is the
silent gene of a gene pair.
What is the primary reason that some older adults have impaired inflammation and
wound healing? - Answer--The underlying chronic illness exists.
A generalized inflammatory response seen in chronic illness depletes the body's
reserves to fight against illness.
Which cells are the body's primary defense against parasite invasion? -
Answer--Eosinophils are the body's primary defense against parasites.
What Phagocytes bacteria? - Answer--Macrophages work by eating or phagocytosing
bacteria.
What is the first response to a foreign pathogen? - Answer--Helper T cells
Which characteristic is the most important determinant of immunogenicity when
considering the antigen? - Answer--Immunogenicity is primarily based on the ability to
recognize something foreign.
,How are erythrocytes destroyed when mismatched blood is administered, causing an
ABO incompatibility? - Answer--The complement pathway is activated in response to
blood incompatibility.
What is the hypersensitivity reaction that causes atopic dermatitis? - Answer--An
immediate (type I) hypersensitivity reaction causes atopic dermatitis.
Which four infections are considered fungal infections? - Answer--Infection with a
fungus is called mycosis and includes dermatophytes (e.g., tineas, which refers to
several skin mycoses, including ringworm and athlete's foot) and yeasts, which include
candida and aspergillus.
When is the earliest after sexual transmission of HIV that lab results can detect
infection? - Answer--Lab testing can detect HIV RNA 4 to 10 days after sexual
transmission, whereas HIV antibody testing may take 23 to 90 days to result in a
positive test. Repeat testing may be needed to rule out a false negative test due to
testing too soon after exposure, especially if a high likelihood of exposure is suspected.
What is a characteristic of exotoxins? - Answer--Exotoxins are released during bacterial
growth.
Which dietary lifestyle choice has been associated with a decreased risk for developing
colon cancer? - Answer--The results of decreased fat consumption have been widely
studied and have demonstrated a decreased risk of developing colon cancer.
Which cancer is an individual who has worked with asbestos for over 40 years most
likely to develop? - Answer--Asbestos exposure results in an increased risk of lung and
lung lining cancer.
Which statement is true regarding ultraviolet (UV) light?
The degree of damage is not affected by the light's wavelength. - Answer--UV light
causes basal cell carcinoma and squamous cell carcinoma when the UVB rays hit DNA
strands, causing thymine base pairs that are side by side to pair together, becoming
thymine dimers. These thymine dimers lead to cell death or cancer.
Which cancer does exercise have a convincing impact on reducing? -
Answer--Exercise-induced myokines cause apoptosis of colon cancer cells.
Low healthcare literacy is recognized as a major risk factor in blood pressure control
and has been shown to have adverse effects on health outcomes.
, true or false - Answer--TRUE
By providing patient education at the appropriate literacy level, improved health
outcomes may result.
One of the goals of the National Action Plan to Improve Health Literacy is to incorporate
research and evidence-based plans of treatment from childhood through university-level
education in a manner consistent with an individual's literacy level.
True or false - Answer--True
Ensuring the individual can understand all elements of a treatment plan is crucial for
understanding and compliance.
What is a red flag for low healthcare literacy? - Answer--Low literacy often leads to
perceived noncompliance to medical instructions, including medication instructions.
Ensuring the patient fully understands all instructions is critical for understanding.
Amniocentesis is recommended for pregnant women with certain health histories.
Which health history would result in an amniocentesis recommendation? -
Answer--Those who have a family history of genetic disorders
Studies have identified several genes that play a role in the prevention of obesity.
What do these genes influence? - Answer--Regulation of appetite-Research has shown
that genetic mutations may cause alterations in the regulation of appetite.
Which concept is data reporting that sickle cell disease affects approximately 1 in 600
black Americans an example of? - Answer--Prevalence tells us how often disease is
seen in a population, which includes all people with the disease at a given time, at any
stage in the disease progression.
What describes a chromosomal defect caused by Prader-Willi syndrome? -
Answer--Prader-Willi syndrome is caused by a disorder of a portion of chromosome 15.
Normally, a portion of this chromosome is inherited from both parents. With Prader-Willi
syndrome, the chromosome inherited from the father is problematic.
Which action is a purpose of the inflammatory process? - Answer--Prevent infection of
the injured tissue
The inflammatory response is a defense mechanism designed to remove damaged
tissue so the body can heal.
Which leukocytes are elevated in response to acute inflammatory reactions when
considering white blood cell differentials?
Pathophysiology for the Advanced
Practice Nurse
Which type of genetic disease affects males more frequently than females? -
Answer--Sex-Linked recessive. Since males only have one X and one Y, if the affected
chromosome has the illness, it will be expressed.
In which two conditions are chromosomal abnormalities the leading known cause? -
Answer--Intellectual disability and fetal miscarriage. Chromosome abnormalities are the
leading known cause of intellectual disability and fetal miscarriage.
What are three examples of prenatal diagnostic studies? - Answer--Chorionic villus
sampling (CVS), amniocentesis, and preimplantation genetic testing (PGT) are
examples of prenatal diagnostic studies and are performed in vitro. CVS is a form of
genetic testing that provides genetic information found in utero and is usually performed
between weeks 11 and 14 of pregnancy. An amniocentesis is a form of genetic testing
that evaluates amniotic fluid and is usually performed during the second trimester,
between weeks 15 and 20 of pregnancy. PGT is performed on the embryo prior to
implantation.
Which genetic disorder is characterized by the presence of a zygote having one
chromosome with a normal complement of genes and one chromosome with a missing
gene? - Answer--Cri du chat syndrome (translated as "cry of the cat") is caused by a
DNA deletion. This term describes the cry often heard from a baby affected by the
,syndrome. Cri du chat syndrome can present as a microcephalic, low birth-weight baby
with a piercing cry.
How can an X-linked recessive disease skip generations? - Answer--The disease can
be transmitted through female carriers.
Since females have two copies of the X chromosome, the mother may provide an
unaffected X to a daughter or son. Furthermore, a daughter may not show signs of the
disease because she has the other X (the only X the father can give to a female) to
cancel it out.
Which type of risk is referred to as the ratio of the disease rate among the entire
population to the disease rate in an unexposed population? - Answer--Relative risk is a
ratio of probability, not an actual occurrence of disease.
What are the empirical risks for most multifactorial diseases based on? - Answer--Many
factors from lifestyle to genetics affect multifactorial diseases. Observation and
evaluation of each case individually provides the most thorough and accurate
assessment.
What refers to the silenced gene of a gene pair. - Answer--The imprinted gene is the
silent gene of a gene pair.
What is the primary reason that some older adults have impaired inflammation and
wound healing? - Answer--The underlying chronic illness exists.
A generalized inflammatory response seen in chronic illness depletes the body's
reserves to fight against illness.
Which cells are the body's primary defense against parasite invasion? -
Answer--Eosinophils are the body's primary defense against parasites.
What Phagocytes bacteria? - Answer--Macrophages work by eating or phagocytosing
bacteria.
What is the first response to a foreign pathogen? - Answer--Helper T cells
Which characteristic is the most important determinant of immunogenicity when
considering the antigen? - Answer--Immunogenicity is primarily based on the ability to
recognize something foreign.
,How are erythrocytes destroyed when mismatched blood is administered, causing an
ABO incompatibility? - Answer--The complement pathway is activated in response to
blood incompatibility.
What is the hypersensitivity reaction that causes atopic dermatitis? - Answer--An
immediate (type I) hypersensitivity reaction causes atopic dermatitis.
Which four infections are considered fungal infections? - Answer--Infection with a
fungus is called mycosis and includes dermatophytes (e.g., tineas, which refers to
several skin mycoses, including ringworm and athlete's foot) and yeasts, which include
candida and aspergillus.
When is the earliest after sexual transmission of HIV that lab results can detect
infection? - Answer--Lab testing can detect HIV RNA 4 to 10 days after sexual
transmission, whereas HIV antibody testing may take 23 to 90 days to result in a
positive test. Repeat testing may be needed to rule out a false negative test due to
testing too soon after exposure, especially if a high likelihood of exposure is suspected.
What is a characteristic of exotoxins? - Answer--Exotoxins are released during bacterial
growth.
Which dietary lifestyle choice has been associated with a decreased risk for developing
colon cancer? - Answer--The results of decreased fat consumption have been widely
studied and have demonstrated a decreased risk of developing colon cancer.
Which cancer is an individual who has worked with asbestos for over 40 years most
likely to develop? - Answer--Asbestos exposure results in an increased risk of lung and
lung lining cancer.
Which statement is true regarding ultraviolet (UV) light?
The degree of damage is not affected by the light's wavelength. - Answer--UV light
causes basal cell carcinoma and squamous cell carcinoma when the UVB rays hit DNA
strands, causing thymine base pairs that are side by side to pair together, becoming
thymine dimers. These thymine dimers lead to cell death or cancer.
Which cancer does exercise have a convincing impact on reducing? -
Answer--Exercise-induced myokines cause apoptosis of colon cancer cells.
Low healthcare literacy is recognized as a major risk factor in blood pressure control
and has been shown to have adverse effects on health outcomes.
, true or false - Answer--TRUE
By providing patient education at the appropriate literacy level, improved health
outcomes may result.
One of the goals of the National Action Plan to Improve Health Literacy is to incorporate
research and evidence-based plans of treatment from childhood through university-level
education in a manner consistent with an individual's literacy level.
True or false - Answer--True
Ensuring the individual can understand all elements of a treatment plan is crucial for
understanding and compliance.
What is a red flag for low healthcare literacy? - Answer--Low literacy often leads to
perceived noncompliance to medical instructions, including medication instructions.
Ensuring the patient fully understands all instructions is critical for understanding.
Amniocentesis is recommended for pregnant women with certain health histories.
Which health history would result in an amniocentesis recommendation? -
Answer--Those who have a family history of genetic disorders
Studies have identified several genes that play a role in the prevention of obesity.
What do these genes influence? - Answer--Regulation of appetite-Research has shown
that genetic mutations may cause alterations in the regulation of appetite.
Which concept is data reporting that sickle cell disease affects approximately 1 in 600
black Americans an example of? - Answer--Prevalence tells us how often disease is
seen in a population, which includes all people with the disease at a given time, at any
stage in the disease progression.
What describes a chromosomal defect caused by Prader-Willi syndrome? -
Answer--Prader-Willi syndrome is caused by a disorder of a portion of chromosome 15.
Normally, a portion of this chromosome is inherited from both parents. With Prader-Willi
syndrome, the chromosome inherited from the father is problematic.
Which action is a purpose of the inflammatory process? - Answer--Prevent infection of
the injured tissue
The inflammatory response is a defense mechanism designed to remove damaged
tissue so the body can heal.
Which leukocytes are elevated in response to acute inflammatory reactions when
considering white blood cell differentials?
