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Rasmussen Pathophysiology NUR 2063
NUR2063 Essentials of Exam 2 2026/2027
Actual Exam | Latest Edition Graded A+ |
Pass Guaranteed - A+ Graded
Section 1: Cardiovascular System Disorders (Questions 1-25)
Q1: A 65-year-old patient with a history of hypertension and smoking presents with substernal
chest pain radiating to the left arm, diaphoresis, and nausea. ECG shows ST-segment elevation.
Which of the following pathophysiological processes is MOST likely occurring?
A. Stable angina due to fixed coronary artery stenosis
B. Acute myocardial infarction due to plaque rupture and thrombosis [CORRECT]
C. Pericarditis due to viral infection
D. Aortic dissection due to hypertension
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Acute myocardial infarction (MI) results from plaque rupture and thrombus formation,
causing complete coronary artery occlusion. ST-segment elevation indicates transmural ischemia.
Option A (stable angina) is exertional and relieved by rest, without ST elevation. Option C
(pericarditis) has diffuse ST elevation and positional chest pain. Option D (aortic dissection)
presents with tearing chest pain radiating to the back.
Cognitive Level: Analysis
Q2: A patient with heart failure has an ejection fraction of 35%. This indicates:
A. Systolic heart failure [CORRECT]
B. Diastolic heart failure
C. Normal cardiac function
D. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Ejection fraction <40% indicates systolic heart failure (HFrEF), where the ventricle
cannot contract effectively. Diastolic heart failure (HFpEF) has preserved ejection fraction
,2
(>50%). Option C (normal) is 55-70%. Option D (hypertrophic) may have normal or increased
EF.
Cognitive Level: Recall
Q3: Which of the following pathophysiological mechanisms is responsible for the development
of essential hypertension?
A. Renal artery stenosis
B. Pheochromocytoma
C. Complex interaction of genetic, environmental, and lifestyle factors affecting cardiac output
and peripheral resistance [CORRECT]
D. Coarctation of the aorta
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Essential (primary) hypertension has no single identifiable cause but results from
multiple factors affecting cardiac output and peripheral resistance. Options A, B, and D are
causes of secondary hypertension.
Cognitive Level: Recall
Q4: A patient with chronic hypertension develops left ventricular hypertrophy. This is an
example of:
A. Physiological adaptation
B. Pathological adaptation (remodeling) [CORRECT]
C. Apoptosis
D. Necrosis
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Left ventricular hypertrophy in response to chronic pressure overload is a pathological
adaptation (remodeling) that initially compensates but eventually leads to diastolic dysfunction
and heart failure. Option A (physiological) occurs with exercise. Options C and D are cell death
processes.
Cognitive Level: Application
Q5: [SATA] A patient with atherosclerosis has plaque formation in the coronary arteries. Which
of the following factors contribute to atherogenesis? [Select all that apply]
[X] A. Endothelial injury [CORRECT]
,3
[X] B. Lipid accumulation (LDL cholesterol) [CORRECT]
[X] C. Inflammatory response with macrophage activation [CORRECT]
[X] D. Smooth muscle cell proliferation [CORRECT]
[ ] E. Increased HDL cholesterol
Correct Answers: A, B, C, D
Rationale: Atherosclerosis involves endothelial injury (A), LDL accumulation (B), inflammation
with foam cell formation (C), and smooth muscle proliferation (D). HDL cholesterol (E) is
protective, not contributory.
Cognitive Level: Analysis
Q6: A patient with infective endocarditis develops septic emboli to the brain. Which of the
following pathophysiological mechanisms explains this complication?
A. Vegetations on heart valves fragment and embolize to systemic circulation [CORRECT]
B. Direct bacterial invasion of brain tissue
C. Autoimmune reaction against cerebral vessels
D. Hypertensive hemorrhage
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Infective endocarditis causes vegetations on heart valves that can fragment and
embolize to the brain, kidneys, spleen, or extremities. Options B, C, and D are not primary
mechanisms in endocarditis.
Cognitive Level: Application
Q7: A patient with dilated cardiomyopathy has an enlarged ventricular chamber and thin
ventricular walls. The primary pathophysiological problem is:
A. Impaired systolic function with decreased contractility [CORRECT]
B. Impaired diastolic filling with preserved contractility
C. Asymmetric septal hypertrophy
D. Restrictive filling due to fibrosis
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Dilated cardiomyopathy is characterized by ventricular dilation and impaired systolic
function (decreased contractility). Option B describes diastolic dysfunction. Option C describes
hypertrophic cardiomyopathy. Option D describes restrictive cardiomyopathy.
, 4
Cognitive Level: Recall
Q8: [Fill-in-the-Blank] A patient with heart failure has the following hemodynamic parameters:
Cardiac Output (CO) = 4 L/min, Heart Rate (HR) = 80 bpm. What is the patient's Stroke Volume
(SV)?
Answer: 50 mL [CORRECT]
Rationale: Using the formula CO = SV × HR, then SV = CO / HR = 4,000 mL/min ÷ 80 bpm =
50 mL. Normal stroke volume is 60-100 mL, indicating this patient has low stroke volume
contributing to heart failure.
Cognitive Level: Application
Q9: A patient with mitral stenosis develops pulmonary edema. The primary hemodynamic
alteration is:
A. Increased preload to the right ventricle
B. Obstruction to left ventricular inflow causing increased left atrial pressure [CORRECT]
C. Aortic regurgitation
D. Decreased systemic vascular resistance
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Mitral stenosis obstructs blood flow from left atrium to left ventricle, causing left
atrial pressure elevation, pulmonary venous hypertension, and pulmonary edema. Options A, C,
and D are not primary mechanisms.
Cognitive Level: Analysis
Q10: A patient with peripheral artery disease (PAD) experiences intermittent claudication. The
pathophysiological mechanism is:
A. Inadequate blood supply to meet metabolic demands of exercising muscle [CORRECT]
B. Deep vein thrombosis
C. Arterial vasospasm without structural disease
D. Lymphatic obstruction
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Intermittent claudication results from atherosclerotic narrowing causing insufficient
blood flow to meet oxygen demands of exercising muscle, resulting in ischemic pain. Option B
describes venous disease. Option C describes vasospastic disorders. Option D describes
lymphedema.
Rasmussen Pathophysiology NUR 2063
NUR2063 Essentials of Exam 2 2026/2027
Actual Exam | Latest Edition Graded A+ |
Pass Guaranteed - A+ Graded
Section 1: Cardiovascular System Disorders (Questions 1-25)
Q1: A 65-year-old patient with a history of hypertension and smoking presents with substernal
chest pain radiating to the left arm, diaphoresis, and nausea. ECG shows ST-segment elevation.
Which of the following pathophysiological processes is MOST likely occurring?
A. Stable angina due to fixed coronary artery stenosis
B. Acute myocardial infarction due to plaque rupture and thrombosis [CORRECT]
C. Pericarditis due to viral infection
D. Aortic dissection due to hypertension
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Acute myocardial infarction (MI) results from plaque rupture and thrombus formation,
causing complete coronary artery occlusion. ST-segment elevation indicates transmural ischemia.
Option A (stable angina) is exertional and relieved by rest, without ST elevation. Option C
(pericarditis) has diffuse ST elevation and positional chest pain. Option D (aortic dissection)
presents with tearing chest pain radiating to the back.
Cognitive Level: Analysis
Q2: A patient with heart failure has an ejection fraction of 35%. This indicates:
A. Systolic heart failure [CORRECT]
B. Diastolic heart failure
C. Normal cardiac function
D. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Ejection fraction <40% indicates systolic heart failure (HFrEF), where the ventricle
cannot contract effectively. Diastolic heart failure (HFpEF) has preserved ejection fraction
,2
(>50%). Option C (normal) is 55-70%. Option D (hypertrophic) may have normal or increased
EF.
Cognitive Level: Recall
Q3: Which of the following pathophysiological mechanisms is responsible for the development
of essential hypertension?
A. Renal artery stenosis
B. Pheochromocytoma
C. Complex interaction of genetic, environmental, and lifestyle factors affecting cardiac output
and peripheral resistance [CORRECT]
D. Coarctation of the aorta
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Essential (primary) hypertension has no single identifiable cause but results from
multiple factors affecting cardiac output and peripheral resistance. Options A, B, and D are
causes of secondary hypertension.
Cognitive Level: Recall
Q4: A patient with chronic hypertension develops left ventricular hypertrophy. This is an
example of:
A. Physiological adaptation
B. Pathological adaptation (remodeling) [CORRECT]
C. Apoptosis
D. Necrosis
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Left ventricular hypertrophy in response to chronic pressure overload is a pathological
adaptation (remodeling) that initially compensates but eventually leads to diastolic dysfunction
and heart failure. Option A (physiological) occurs with exercise. Options C and D are cell death
processes.
Cognitive Level: Application
Q5: [SATA] A patient with atherosclerosis has plaque formation in the coronary arteries. Which
of the following factors contribute to atherogenesis? [Select all that apply]
[X] A. Endothelial injury [CORRECT]
,3
[X] B. Lipid accumulation (LDL cholesterol) [CORRECT]
[X] C. Inflammatory response with macrophage activation [CORRECT]
[X] D. Smooth muscle cell proliferation [CORRECT]
[ ] E. Increased HDL cholesterol
Correct Answers: A, B, C, D
Rationale: Atherosclerosis involves endothelial injury (A), LDL accumulation (B), inflammation
with foam cell formation (C), and smooth muscle proliferation (D). HDL cholesterol (E) is
protective, not contributory.
Cognitive Level: Analysis
Q6: A patient with infective endocarditis develops septic emboli to the brain. Which of the
following pathophysiological mechanisms explains this complication?
A. Vegetations on heart valves fragment and embolize to systemic circulation [CORRECT]
B. Direct bacterial invasion of brain tissue
C. Autoimmune reaction against cerebral vessels
D. Hypertensive hemorrhage
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Infective endocarditis causes vegetations on heart valves that can fragment and
embolize to the brain, kidneys, spleen, or extremities. Options B, C, and D are not primary
mechanisms in endocarditis.
Cognitive Level: Application
Q7: A patient with dilated cardiomyopathy has an enlarged ventricular chamber and thin
ventricular walls. The primary pathophysiological problem is:
A. Impaired systolic function with decreased contractility [CORRECT]
B. Impaired diastolic filling with preserved contractility
C. Asymmetric septal hypertrophy
D. Restrictive filling due to fibrosis
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Dilated cardiomyopathy is characterized by ventricular dilation and impaired systolic
function (decreased contractility). Option B describes diastolic dysfunction. Option C describes
hypertrophic cardiomyopathy. Option D describes restrictive cardiomyopathy.
, 4
Cognitive Level: Recall
Q8: [Fill-in-the-Blank] A patient with heart failure has the following hemodynamic parameters:
Cardiac Output (CO) = 4 L/min, Heart Rate (HR) = 80 bpm. What is the patient's Stroke Volume
(SV)?
Answer: 50 mL [CORRECT]
Rationale: Using the formula CO = SV × HR, then SV = CO / HR = 4,000 mL/min ÷ 80 bpm =
50 mL. Normal stroke volume is 60-100 mL, indicating this patient has low stroke volume
contributing to heart failure.
Cognitive Level: Application
Q9: A patient with mitral stenosis develops pulmonary edema. The primary hemodynamic
alteration is:
A. Increased preload to the right ventricle
B. Obstruction to left ventricular inflow causing increased left atrial pressure [CORRECT]
C. Aortic regurgitation
D. Decreased systemic vascular resistance
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Mitral stenosis obstructs blood flow from left atrium to left ventricle, causing left
atrial pressure elevation, pulmonary venous hypertension, and pulmonary edema. Options A, C,
and D are not primary mechanisms.
Cognitive Level: Analysis
Q10: A patient with peripheral artery disease (PAD) experiences intermittent claudication. The
pathophysiological mechanism is:
A. Inadequate blood supply to meet metabolic demands of exercising muscle [CORRECT]
B. Deep vein thrombosis
C. Arterial vasospasm without structural disease
D. Lymphatic obstruction
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Intermittent claudication results from atherosclerotic narrowing causing insufficient
blood flow to meet oxygen demands of exercising muscle, resulting in ischemic pain. Option B
describes venous disease. Option C describes vasospastic disorders. Option D describes
lymphedema.
