EMS 1021 FINAL EXAM 2026 | COMPLETE QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS | GRADED
A+ | VERIFIED ANSWERS | BRAND NEW VERSION!
Question 1
A 24-year-old female was initially unconscious after a fall but becomes fully alert and oriented
(AOx4) during the transition to the ambulance. She now refuses further treatment and transport.
Under what condition can she legally refuse?
A) Only if a family member signs for her
B) Only if her injuries are visibly minor
C) If she is a competent adult with the capacity to understand the risks of refusal
D) She cannot refuse because she was previously unconscious
E) Only if the Medical Director provides a verbal waiver over the radio
Correct Answer: C) If she is a competent adult with the capacity to understand the risks of
refusal
Rationale: Competent adults have the right to self-determination. If a patient regains
consciousness and demonstrates they are alert and oriented (AOx4) and understand the
potential consequences of refusing care (including death), they may legally refuse
transport. The EMT must document the refusal thoroughly and ensure the patient is
making an informed decision.
Question 2
During a trauma assessment, you identify a "flail segment" on a patient's chest. Which of the
following best describes this finding?
A) A single rib fracture causing minor bruising
B) Two or more adjacent ribs broken in two or more places, creating a detached segment
C) A puncture wound that allows air to enter the pleural space
D) A collapse of the entire lung on the affected side
E) The presence of air bubbles under the skin (subcutaneous emphysema)
Correct Answer: B) Two or more adjacent ribs broken in two or more places, creating a
detached segment
Rationale: A flail segment occurs when a portion of the rib cage is separated from the rest of
the chest wall due to multiple fractures. This results in "paradoxical motion," where the
detached segment moves inward during inhalation and outward during exhalation.
Question 3
How should an EMT stabilize a suspected flail segment in the field?
A) Perform an immediate needle decompression
B) Apply a tight tourniquet around the chest
C) Apply manual pressure or a bulky dressing to keep the segment in place
D) Encourage the patient to take deep, rapid breaths
E) Use an occlusive dressing taped on three sides
Correct Answer: C) Apply manual pressure or a bulky dressing to keep the segment in place
, 2
Rationale: The goal is to provide stability to the chest wall to improve the efficiency of
respirations. Applying manual pressure or securing a bulky dressing over the site helps
minimize the paradoxical movement and associated pain.
Question 4
In patient assessment, what is the definition of a "Negative Finding"?
A) A lab result that comes back as "normal"
B) Signs or symptoms that you expect to see based on the MOI/NOI, but the patient does not
have
C) A patient who is being uncooperative during the exam
D) A decrease in blood pressure during transport
E) A documentation error made by the EMT
Correct Answer: B) Signs or symptoms that you expect to see based on the MOI/NOI, but
the patient does not have
Rationale: Negative findings (often called pertinent negatives) are crucial for diagnosis and
documentation. For example, if a patient falls from a height, an EMT expects back pain. If
the patient denies back pain, that is a "pertinent negative" that helps rule out certain
spinal injuries.
Question 5
You observe "Battle Sign" while assessing a patient who fell from a ladder. Where is this sign
located and what does it indicate?
A) Bruising around the eyes; indicates a facial fracture
B) Bruising over the mastoid process (behind the ears); indicates a basilar skull fracture
C) Redness on the chest; indicates a pulmonary contusion
D) Swelling of the neck veins; indicates heart failure
E) Bruising around the umbilicus; indicates internal bleeding
Correct Answer: B) Bruising over the mastoid process (behind the ears); indicates a basilar
skull fracture
Rationale: Battle Sign is a classic delayed finding of a serious head injury, specifically a
fracture at the base of the skull. It is caused by blood pooling behind the ear.
Question 6
The Pediatric Assessment Triangle (PAT) is used to form a "from-the-door" initial impression of
a child. What are its three components?
A) Airway, Breathing, Circulation
B) Appearance, Work of Breathing, Circulation to Skin
C) Pulse, Respirations, Blood Pressure
D) Alert, Verbal, Pain
E) Tone, Cry, Movement
Correct Answer: B) Appearance, Work of Breathing, Circulation to Skin
, 3
Rationale: The PAT allows the EMT to assess a pediatric patient without touching them.
Appearance reflects the CNS/oxygenation; Work of Breathing reflects the respiratory
status; Circulation to Skin reflects the overall perfusion/cardiac status.
Question 7
A patient is completely unresponsive, does not open their eyes to pain, and has no motor
response. What is their Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score?
A) 0
B) 1
C) 3
D) 8
E) 15
Correct Answer: C) 3
Rationale: The GCS ranges from 3 to 15. A score of 3 is the lowest possible score,
representing 1 point for Eyes (none), 1 point for Verbal (none), and 1 point for Motor
(none). A score of 3 is often associated with extremely poor outcomes or death.
Question 8
A GCS score of less than ________ is generally used to define "severe impaired consciousness"
or the need for advanced airway management (intubation).
A) 15
B) 13
C) 10
D) 8
E) 5
Correct Answer: D) 8
Rationale: As the clinical adage goes, "GCS of 8, irrigate" (or intubate). A score below 8
indicates the patient is unable to protect their own airway and is in a state of severe altered
mental status.
Question 9
In the SOAP documentation format, where would you record the patient's heart rate and blood
pressure?
A) Subjective
B) Objective
C) Assessment
D) Plan
E) Chief Complaint
Correct Answer: B) Objective
Rationale: The "Objective" section contains measurable, observable data. Vital signs,
physical exam findings, and GCS scores are all objective data.
A+ | VERIFIED ANSWERS | BRAND NEW VERSION!
Question 1
A 24-year-old female was initially unconscious after a fall but becomes fully alert and oriented
(AOx4) during the transition to the ambulance. She now refuses further treatment and transport.
Under what condition can she legally refuse?
A) Only if a family member signs for her
B) Only if her injuries are visibly minor
C) If she is a competent adult with the capacity to understand the risks of refusal
D) She cannot refuse because she was previously unconscious
E) Only if the Medical Director provides a verbal waiver over the radio
Correct Answer: C) If she is a competent adult with the capacity to understand the risks of
refusal
Rationale: Competent adults have the right to self-determination. If a patient regains
consciousness and demonstrates they are alert and oriented (AOx4) and understand the
potential consequences of refusing care (including death), they may legally refuse
transport. The EMT must document the refusal thoroughly and ensure the patient is
making an informed decision.
Question 2
During a trauma assessment, you identify a "flail segment" on a patient's chest. Which of the
following best describes this finding?
A) A single rib fracture causing minor bruising
B) Two or more adjacent ribs broken in two or more places, creating a detached segment
C) A puncture wound that allows air to enter the pleural space
D) A collapse of the entire lung on the affected side
E) The presence of air bubbles under the skin (subcutaneous emphysema)
Correct Answer: B) Two or more adjacent ribs broken in two or more places, creating a
detached segment
Rationale: A flail segment occurs when a portion of the rib cage is separated from the rest of
the chest wall due to multiple fractures. This results in "paradoxical motion," where the
detached segment moves inward during inhalation and outward during exhalation.
Question 3
How should an EMT stabilize a suspected flail segment in the field?
A) Perform an immediate needle decompression
B) Apply a tight tourniquet around the chest
C) Apply manual pressure or a bulky dressing to keep the segment in place
D) Encourage the patient to take deep, rapid breaths
E) Use an occlusive dressing taped on three sides
Correct Answer: C) Apply manual pressure or a bulky dressing to keep the segment in place
, 2
Rationale: The goal is to provide stability to the chest wall to improve the efficiency of
respirations. Applying manual pressure or securing a bulky dressing over the site helps
minimize the paradoxical movement and associated pain.
Question 4
In patient assessment, what is the definition of a "Negative Finding"?
A) A lab result that comes back as "normal"
B) Signs or symptoms that you expect to see based on the MOI/NOI, but the patient does not
have
C) A patient who is being uncooperative during the exam
D) A decrease in blood pressure during transport
E) A documentation error made by the EMT
Correct Answer: B) Signs or symptoms that you expect to see based on the MOI/NOI, but
the patient does not have
Rationale: Negative findings (often called pertinent negatives) are crucial for diagnosis and
documentation. For example, if a patient falls from a height, an EMT expects back pain. If
the patient denies back pain, that is a "pertinent negative" that helps rule out certain
spinal injuries.
Question 5
You observe "Battle Sign" while assessing a patient who fell from a ladder. Where is this sign
located and what does it indicate?
A) Bruising around the eyes; indicates a facial fracture
B) Bruising over the mastoid process (behind the ears); indicates a basilar skull fracture
C) Redness on the chest; indicates a pulmonary contusion
D) Swelling of the neck veins; indicates heart failure
E) Bruising around the umbilicus; indicates internal bleeding
Correct Answer: B) Bruising over the mastoid process (behind the ears); indicates a basilar
skull fracture
Rationale: Battle Sign is a classic delayed finding of a serious head injury, specifically a
fracture at the base of the skull. It is caused by blood pooling behind the ear.
Question 6
The Pediatric Assessment Triangle (PAT) is used to form a "from-the-door" initial impression of
a child. What are its three components?
A) Airway, Breathing, Circulation
B) Appearance, Work of Breathing, Circulation to Skin
C) Pulse, Respirations, Blood Pressure
D) Alert, Verbal, Pain
E) Tone, Cry, Movement
Correct Answer: B) Appearance, Work of Breathing, Circulation to Skin
, 3
Rationale: The PAT allows the EMT to assess a pediatric patient without touching them.
Appearance reflects the CNS/oxygenation; Work of Breathing reflects the respiratory
status; Circulation to Skin reflects the overall perfusion/cardiac status.
Question 7
A patient is completely unresponsive, does not open their eyes to pain, and has no motor
response. What is their Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score?
A) 0
B) 1
C) 3
D) 8
E) 15
Correct Answer: C) 3
Rationale: The GCS ranges from 3 to 15. A score of 3 is the lowest possible score,
representing 1 point for Eyes (none), 1 point for Verbal (none), and 1 point for Motor
(none). A score of 3 is often associated with extremely poor outcomes or death.
Question 8
A GCS score of less than ________ is generally used to define "severe impaired consciousness"
or the need for advanced airway management (intubation).
A) 15
B) 13
C) 10
D) 8
E) 5
Correct Answer: D) 8
Rationale: As the clinical adage goes, "GCS of 8, irrigate" (or intubate). A score below 8
indicates the patient is unable to protect their own airway and is in a state of severe altered
mental status.
Question 9
In the SOAP documentation format, where would you record the patient's heart rate and blood
pressure?
A) Subjective
B) Objective
C) Assessment
D) Plan
E) Chief Complaint
Correct Answer: B) Objective
Rationale: The "Objective" section contains measurable, observable data. Vital signs,
physical exam findings, and GCS scores are all objective data.
