EMS 1021 EXAM 2 2026 | COMPLETE QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS | GRADED A+ |
VERIFIED ANSWERS | BRAND NEW VERSION!
Question 1
Which of the following is defined as an objective condition that an EMT can observe or
measure?
A) Symptom
B) Subjective finding
C) Chief complaint
D) Sign
E) History of present illness
Correct Answer: D) Sign
Rationale: A sign is an objective finding that can be seen, heard, felt, or measured by the
examiner (e.g., a laceration, a blood pressure reading, or wheezing). A symptom is
subjective and is felt only by the patient.
Question 2
A patient tells you, "I feel like my heart is racing and I have a sharp pain in my chest." These
descriptions are considered:
A) Signs
B) Objective data
C) Symptoms
D) Vital signs
E) Clinical markers
Correct Answer: C) Symptoms
Rationale: Symptoms are subjective conditions that the patient feels and tells the EMT
about. Since the EMT cannot "feel" the patient's pain, it must be reported by the patient.
Question 3
Which term refers to anecdotal information that comes from opinions, perceptions, or
experiences?
A) Objective
B) Empirical
C) Subjective
D) Validated
E) Quantitative
Correct Answer: C) Subjective
Rationale: Subjective information is based on the patient's personal feelings or
interpretations. For example, a patient saying they are "very dizzy" is subjective; a patient
falling over during a balance test is objective.
Question 4
Vital signs and physical exam findings are examples of what type of data?
, 2
A) Subjective
B) Anecdotal
C) Qualitative
D) Objective
E) Perceptual
Correct Answer: D) Objective
Rationale: Objective data is information that is verifiable and can be observed by multiple
people with the same results. Examples include a pulse rate of 80 bpm or a pupil that is
4mm and reactive to light.
Question 5
When does the process of "scene size-up" begin?
A) Once you make patient contact.
B) After the primary assessment is complete.
C) From the moment you are dispatched and called into action.
D) Only when you physically arrive at the curb of the incident.
E) When the police declare the scene safe.
Correct Answer: C) From the moment you are dispatched and called into action.
Rationale: Scene size-up is a continuous process. It begins with dispatch information (e.g.,
time of day, weather, reported hazards) and continues throughout the entire call to ensure
safety.
Question 6
Which of the following is the most critical priority at the scene of an emergency?
A) The patient’s life
B) Your partner’s safety
C) Your own safety
D) The safety of bystanders
E) Preserving evidence for the police
Correct Answer: C) Your own safety
Rationale: The three priorities of EMS safety are: 1. You (Self), 2. Your partner/team, 3. The
patient. If you become a victim, you cannot help the patient and you create more work for
other rescuers.
Question 7
Maintaining "situational awareness" means:
A) Reading the patient's medical history.
B) Paying attention to the conditions and people around you at all times to identify potential
risks.
C) Calling for ALS resources on every call.
D) Using the siren on every response.
, 3
E) Focusing solely on the patient's chief complaint.
Correct Answer: B) Paying attention to the conditions and people around you at all times to
identify potential risks.
Rationale: Situational awareness involves a 360-degree evaluation of the environment. This
prevents "tunnel vision" and helps the EMT recognize shifting hazards, such as a crowd
becoming hostile or a fire spreading.
Question 8
At a vehicle collision, you notice a placard on a leaking tractor-trailer. This situation is best
described as:
A) A minor inconvenience.
B) A secondary assessment finding.
/C) An immediately unsafe scene.
D) A reason to begin the primary assessment.
E) A clinical sign of trauma.
Correct Answer: C) An immediately unsafe scene.
Rationale: Placards indicate hazardous materials. If a trailer is leaking a substance, the
scene is unsafe. EMTs must stay back, uphill, and upwind, and wait for specialized
resources (HazMat).
Question 9
What is the primary goal of the "Primary Assessment"?
A) To perform a head-to-toe physical exam.
B) To obtain a full set of vital signs.
C) To identify and begin treatment of immediate or imminent life threats.
D) To document the patient's insurance information.
E) To determine the patient's exact medical diagnosis.
Correct Answer: C) To identify and begin treatment of immediate or imminent life threats.
Rationale: The primary assessment focuses on Airway, Breathing, and Circulation (ABCs).
Any threat to these must be corrected immediately (e.g., suctioning an obstructed airway or
stopping arterial bleeding).
Question 10
Which of the following is NOT a component of the primary assessment?
A) General impression
B) Level of consciousness (AVPU)
C) Detailed physical examination
D) ABCs + X (Life threats)
E) Determination of transport priority
Correct Answer: C) Detailed physical examination
Rationale: A detailed physical exam occurs during the secondary assessment. The primary
VERIFIED ANSWERS | BRAND NEW VERSION!
Question 1
Which of the following is defined as an objective condition that an EMT can observe or
measure?
A) Symptom
B) Subjective finding
C) Chief complaint
D) Sign
E) History of present illness
Correct Answer: D) Sign
Rationale: A sign is an objective finding that can be seen, heard, felt, or measured by the
examiner (e.g., a laceration, a blood pressure reading, or wheezing). A symptom is
subjective and is felt only by the patient.
Question 2
A patient tells you, "I feel like my heart is racing and I have a sharp pain in my chest." These
descriptions are considered:
A) Signs
B) Objective data
C) Symptoms
D) Vital signs
E) Clinical markers
Correct Answer: C) Symptoms
Rationale: Symptoms are subjective conditions that the patient feels and tells the EMT
about. Since the EMT cannot "feel" the patient's pain, it must be reported by the patient.
Question 3
Which term refers to anecdotal information that comes from opinions, perceptions, or
experiences?
A) Objective
B) Empirical
C) Subjective
D) Validated
E) Quantitative
Correct Answer: C) Subjective
Rationale: Subjective information is based on the patient's personal feelings or
interpretations. For example, a patient saying they are "very dizzy" is subjective; a patient
falling over during a balance test is objective.
Question 4
Vital signs and physical exam findings are examples of what type of data?
, 2
A) Subjective
B) Anecdotal
C) Qualitative
D) Objective
E) Perceptual
Correct Answer: D) Objective
Rationale: Objective data is information that is verifiable and can be observed by multiple
people with the same results. Examples include a pulse rate of 80 bpm or a pupil that is
4mm and reactive to light.
Question 5
When does the process of "scene size-up" begin?
A) Once you make patient contact.
B) After the primary assessment is complete.
C) From the moment you are dispatched and called into action.
D) Only when you physically arrive at the curb of the incident.
E) When the police declare the scene safe.
Correct Answer: C) From the moment you are dispatched and called into action.
Rationale: Scene size-up is a continuous process. It begins with dispatch information (e.g.,
time of day, weather, reported hazards) and continues throughout the entire call to ensure
safety.
Question 6
Which of the following is the most critical priority at the scene of an emergency?
A) The patient’s life
B) Your partner’s safety
C) Your own safety
D) The safety of bystanders
E) Preserving evidence for the police
Correct Answer: C) Your own safety
Rationale: The three priorities of EMS safety are: 1. You (Self), 2. Your partner/team, 3. The
patient. If you become a victim, you cannot help the patient and you create more work for
other rescuers.
Question 7
Maintaining "situational awareness" means:
A) Reading the patient's medical history.
B) Paying attention to the conditions and people around you at all times to identify potential
risks.
C) Calling for ALS resources on every call.
D) Using the siren on every response.
, 3
E) Focusing solely on the patient's chief complaint.
Correct Answer: B) Paying attention to the conditions and people around you at all times to
identify potential risks.
Rationale: Situational awareness involves a 360-degree evaluation of the environment. This
prevents "tunnel vision" and helps the EMT recognize shifting hazards, such as a crowd
becoming hostile or a fire spreading.
Question 8
At a vehicle collision, you notice a placard on a leaking tractor-trailer. This situation is best
described as:
A) A minor inconvenience.
B) A secondary assessment finding.
/C) An immediately unsafe scene.
D) A reason to begin the primary assessment.
E) A clinical sign of trauma.
Correct Answer: C) An immediately unsafe scene.
Rationale: Placards indicate hazardous materials. If a trailer is leaking a substance, the
scene is unsafe. EMTs must stay back, uphill, and upwind, and wait for specialized
resources (HazMat).
Question 9
What is the primary goal of the "Primary Assessment"?
A) To perform a head-to-toe physical exam.
B) To obtain a full set of vital signs.
C) To identify and begin treatment of immediate or imminent life threats.
D) To document the patient's insurance information.
E) To determine the patient's exact medical diagnosis.
Correct Answer: C) To identify and begin treatment of immediate or imminent life threats.
Rationale: The primary assessment focuses on Airway, Breathing, and Circulation (ABCs).
Any threat to these must be corrected immediately (e.g., suctioning an obstructed airway or
stopping arterial bleeding).
Question 10
Which of the following is NOT a component of the primary assessment?
A) General impression
B) Level of consciousness (AVPU)
C) Detailed physical examination
D) ABCs + X (Life threats)
E) Determination of transport priority
Correct Answer: C) Detailed physical examination
Rationale: A detailed physical exam occurs during the secondary assessment. The primary
