AACN PCCN certification Exam Explore
Questions and Answers A+ Graded
1. AACN - ANSWER certify nurses; protect consumer by establishing high
standards of professional practice
2. Pathophysiology of COPD (Type of ARDS) - ANSWER progressive,
chronic; characterized by emphysema; inflammation that leads to scarring,
narrowing, increase mucus production; increase in goblet cells, while
decrease in cilia; causes ARF
3. Pathophysiology of Asthma (Type of ARDS) - ANSWER chronic
inflammatory disorder; air trappings, prolonged exhalation, and V/Q
mismatching with increased intrapulmonary shunt occur
4. Clinical Findings of Asthma (Type of ARDS) - ANSWER chest tightness;
cough especially at night; hyperventilation; respiratory alkalosis; peak
expiratory flow readings <50% of patient's normal values; tachypnea;
tachycardia; pulsus paradoxus >15 mm Hg;
5. Status Asthmaticus - ANSWER occurs when bronchodilators does not work;
sign and symptoms are fatigue, hypercapnia, hypoxia, respiratory acidosis
6. Signs of ARF in Patient with Asthma - ANSWER breathlessness at rest and
need to sit upright; speaking in single words and not sentences; lethargy;
confusion; paradoxical thoracoabdominal movement; absence of wheezing;
bradycardia; respiratory acidosis and hypoxemia with PaCO2 >50 and PaO2
<60
7. Interventions of Asthma (Type of ARDS) - ANSWER O2 therapy (helium
and O2); intubation and mechanical ventilation; patient are at risk for auto-
PEEP, barotrauma, and hemodynamic compromise.
8. Virchow Triad - ANSWER Favor the development of VTE; consist of
venous stasis (reduction in blood flow), altered coagulability of blood, and
damage to vessel walls
1
,9. Pathophysiology of Pulmonary Embolism (PE) - ANSWER causes lack of
perfusion to ventilated alveoli, increase in dead space, V/Q mismatch,
decrease CO2 tension; gas exchange cannot occur, inflammation occurs;
atelectasis and shunting occurs; lead to pulmonary HTN; RV increases in
size causing leftward shift of septum
10.CCRN - ANSWER certification for nurses who provide care in critically ill
adult, pediatric, or neonatal populations
11.PCCN - ANSWER certification for nurses who provide acute care in
progressive care, telemetry, and similar units
12.CNML - ANSWER certification for critical care managers and leaders
13.CCNS - ANSWER certification for acute and critical care clinical nurse
specialists
14.Level A (Scale for Rating Research Evidence) - ANSWER meta-analysis or
metasynthesis studies; results consistently support specific action,
intervention, or treatment
15.Level B (Scale for Rating Research Evidence) - ANSWER randomized and
nonrandomized controlled studies; results consistently support specific
action, intervention, or treatment
16.Level C (Scale for Rating Research Evidence) - ANSWER qualitative,
descriptive, or correlational studies, reviews, or trials with inconsistent
results
17.Level D (Scale for Rating Research Evidence) - ANSWER Peer-reviewed
with clinical studies to support recommendations
18.Level E (Scale for Rating Research Evidence) - ANSWER theory-based
evidence from expert opinions
19.Level M (Scale for Rating Research Evidence) - ANSWER Manufacturer's
recommendation only
2
,20.Ask-Tell-Ask (Communication) - ANSWER Communication technique that
assesses concerns before providing info
21.Situational Awareness (Communication) - ANSWER being aware of one's
surroundings
22.Calgary Family Assessment - ANSWER Assessment that involves
structural, developmental, and functional assessments
23.Family Bundle - ANSWER Provide structure for planning and carrying out
family care; based on 5 concepts: evaluate, plan; involve; communicate;
support (EPICS)
24.Principlism - ANSWER widely applied ethical approach based of 4
fundamental moral principles to contemporary ethical dilemmas; respect for
autonomy; beneficence; nonmaleficence; justice
25.Beneficence - ANSWER the duty to provide benefits to others when in a
position to do so, to help balance harms and benefits; the benefits of an
action should outweigh the burdens
26.Futility - ANSWER states that care should not be given if it is futile in terms
of improving comfort or the medical outcome
27.Veracity - ANSWER states that persons are obligated to tell the truth in their
communication with others
28.Fidelity - ANSWER requires that one has a moral duty to be faithful to the
commitments made to others
29.Elements of Informed Consent - ANSWER competence (capacity);
voluntariness; disclosure of information
30.Living Will - ANSWER a witnessed written document or oral statement
voluntarily executed by a person that expresses the person's instructions
concerning life-prolonging procedure; not legally binding in some states
31.Proxy - ANSWER a competent adult, not designated to make health care
decisions for an incapacitated person, but is authorized by state statute to
make healthcare decisions for the person
3
, 32.Surrogate - ANSWER a competent adult designated by a person to make
health care decisions should that person become incapacitated
33.Patient Self-Determination act (End-of-life issue) - ANSWER requires that
all healthcare facilities that receive medicare or medicaid funding inform
their patients about their right to initiate an advance directive and the right to
consent to or refuse medical treatment
34.Withholding, Limiting, or Withdrawing Therapy - ANSWER Priority should
be anticipating patient symptoms; assessment of patient response; titration of
therapy to relieve emotional and physical distress; common meds used are
analgesics (ie. Morphine) and anxiolytics (ie. benzodiazepines)
35.Ventilator WIthdrawal - ANSWER Known as "terminal weaning"; consist of
titration of ventilator support to minimal levels, removal of ventilator, but
not artificial airway, or complete extubation; titrate pain meds and sedation
as needed to relieve symptoms of respiratory distress
36.Commonly withheld therapy - ANSWER vasopressors; antibiotics; done
when goal of treatment shift to palliation instead of cure; address these
before withdrawing or withholding ventilation
37.Ethical Principles for withholding and withdrawing life-sustaining treatment
- ANSWER life-sustaining treatment should not be withdrawn while patient
is receiving paralytic agents. When paralytic drugs are discontinued, patient
must demonstrate sufficient motor activity to allow thorough clinical
assessment before withdrawal of support
38.Hemodynamic Assessment - ANSWER Used to titrate therapies to a specific
end point; detect inadequate tissue perfusion; quantify severity of disease;
and guide therapy
39.normal cardiac output (CO) (hemodynamic values) - ANSWER 4 to 8
L/minute
40.normal central venous pressure (CVP) and Right atrial pressure (RAP)
(hemodynamic values) - ANSWER 2 to 6 mm Hg
4
Questions and Answers A+ Graded
1. AACN - ANSWER certify nurses; protect consumer by establishing high
standards of professional practice
2. Pathophysiology of COPD (Type of ARDS) - ANSWER progressive,
chronic; characterized by emphysema; inflammation that leads to scarring,
narrowing, increase mucus production; increase in goblet cells, while
decrease in cilia; causes ARF
3. Pathophysiology of Asthma (Type of ARDS) - ANSWER chronic
inflammatory disorder; air trappings, prolonged exhalation, and V/Q
mismatching with increased intrapulmonary shunt occur
4. Clinical Findings of Asthma (Type of ARDS) - ANSWER chest tightness;
cough especially at night; hyperventilation; respiratory alkalosis; peak
expiratory flow readings <50% of patient's normal values; tachypnea;
tachycardia; pulsus paradoxus >15 mm Hg;
5. Status Asthmaticus - ANSWER occurs when bronchodilators does not work;
sign and symptoms are fatigue, hypercapnia, hypoxia, respiratory acidosis
6. Signs of ARF in Patient with Asthma - ANSWER breathlessness at rest and
need to sit upright; speaking in single words and not sentences; lethargy;
confusion; paradoxical thoracoabdominal movement; absence of wheezing;
bradycardia; respiratory acidosis and hypoxemia with PaCO2 >50 and PaO2
<60
7. Interventions of Asthma (Type of ARDS) - ANSWER O2 therapy (helium
and O2); intubation and mechanical ventilation; patient are at risk for auto-
PEEP, barotrauma, and hemodynamic compromise.
8. Virchow Triad - ANSWER Favor the development of VTE; consist of
venous stasis (reduction in blood flow), altered coagulability of blood, and
damage to vessel walls
1
,9. Pathophysiology of Pulmonary Embolism (PE) - ANSWER causes lack of
perfusion to ventilated alveoli, increase in dead space, V/Q mismatch,
decrease CO2 tension; gas exchange cannot occur, inflammation occurs;
atelectasis and shunting occurs; lead to pulmonary HTN; RV increases in
size causing leftward shift of septum
10.CCRN - ANSWER certification for nurses who provide care in critically ill
adult, pediatric, or neonatal populations
11.PCCN - ANSWER certification for nurses who provide acute care in
progressive care, telemetry, and similar units
12.CNML - ANSWER certification for critical care managers and leaders
13.CCNS - ANSWER certification for acute and critical care clinical nurse
specialists
14.Level A (Scale for Rating Research Evidence) - ANSWER meta-analysis or
metasynthesis studies; results consistently support specific action,
intervention, or treatment
15.Level B (Scale for Rating Research Evidence) - ANSWER randomized and
nonrandomized controlled studies; results consistently support specific
action, intervention, or treatment
16.Level C (Scale for Rating Research Evidence) - ANSWER qualitative,
descriptive, or correlational studies, reviews, or trials with inconsistent
results
17.Level D (Scale for Rating Research Evidence) - ANSWER Peer-reviewed
with clinical studies to support recommendations
18.Level E (Scale for Rating Research Evidence) - ANSWER theory-based
evidence from expert opinions
19.Level M (Scale for Rating Research Evidence) - ANSWER Manufacturer's
recommendation only
2
,20.Ask-Tell-Ask (Communication) - ANSWER Communication technique that
assesses concerns before providing info
21.Situational Awareness (Communication) - ANSWER being aware of one's
surroundings
22.Calgary Family Assessment - ANSWER Assessment that involves
structural, developmental, and functional assessments
23.Family Bundle - ANSWER Provide structure for planning and carrying out
family care; based on 5 concepts: evaluate, plan; involve; communicate;
support (EPICS)
24.Principlism - ANSWER widely applied ethical approach based of 4
fundamental moral principles to contemporary ethical dilemmas; respect for
autonomy; beneficence; nonmaleficence; justice
25.Beneficence - ANSWER the duty to provide benefits to others when in a
position to do so, to help balance harms and benefits; the benefits of an
action should outweigh the burdens
26.Futility - ANSWER states that care should not be given if it is futile in terms
of improving comfort or the medical outcome
27.Veracity - ANSWER states that persons are obligated to tell the truth in their
communication with others
28.Fidelity - ANSWER requires that one has a moral duty to be faithful to the
commitments made to others
29.Elements of Informed Consent - ANSWER competence (capacity);
voluntariness; disclosure of information
30.Living Will - ANSWER a witnessed written document or oral statement
voluntarily executed by a person that expresses the person's instructions
concerning life-prolonging procedure; not legally binding in some states
31.Proxy - ANSWER a competent adult, not designated to make health care
decisions for an incapacitated person, but is authorized by state statute to
make healthcare decisions for the person
3
, 32.Surrogate - ANSWER a competent adult designated by a person to make
health care decisions should that person become incapacitated
33.Patient Self-Determination act (End-of-life issue) - ANSWER requires that
all healthcare facilities that receive medicare or medicaid funding inform
their patients about their right to initiate an advance directive and the right to
consent to or refuse medical treatment
34.Withholding, Limiting, or Withdrawing Therapy - ANSWER Priority should
be anticipating patient symptoms; assessment of patient response; titration of
therapy to relieve emotional and physical distress; common meds used are
analgesics (ie. Morphine) and anxiolytics (ie. benzodiazepines)
35.Ventilator WIthdrawal - ANSWER Known as "terminal weaning"; consist of
titration of ventilator support to minimal levels, removal of ventilator, but
not artificial airway, or complete extubation; titrate pain meds and sedation
as needed to relieve symptoms of respiratory distress
36.Commonly withheld therapy - ANSWER vasopressors; antibiotics; done
when goal of treatment shift to palliation instead of cure; address these
before withdrawing or withholding ventilation
37.Ethical Principles for withholding and withdrawing life-sustaining treatment
- ANSWER life-sustaining treatment should not be withdrawn while patient
is receiving paralytic agents. When paralytic drugs are discontinued, patient
must demonstrate sufficient motor activity to allow thorough clinical
assessment before withdrawal of support
38.Hemodynamic Assessment - ANSWER Used to titrate therapies to a specific
end point; detect inadequate tissue perfusion; quantify severity of disease;
and guide therapy
39.normal cardiac output (CO) (hemodynamic values) - ANSWER 4 to 8
L/minute
40.normal central venous pressure (CVP) and Right atrial pressure (RAP)
(hemodynamic values) - ANSWER 2 to 6 mm Hg
4
