Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery – ABOMS Practice
Questions WITH CORRECT ANSWERS (VERIFIED
ANSWERS) PLUS RATIONALES 2026 Q&A |INSTANT
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1. What is the most common benign tumor of the salivary
glands?
A. Mucoepidermoid carcinoma
B. Adenoid cystic carcinoma
C. Pleomorphic adenoma
D. Warthin tumor
Correct Answer: C. Pleomorphic adenoma
Rationale: Pleomorphic adenoma is the most common benign
salivary gland tumor, usually occurring in the parotid gland and
characterized by slow growth and a low risk of malignant
transformation.
2. Which cranial nerve is most at risk during a mandibular
third molar extraction?
A. Hypoglossal nerve
B. Inferior alveolar nerve
C. Lingual nerve
D. Facial nerve
Correct Answer: B. Inferior alveolar nerve
Rationale: The inferior alveolar nerve runs within the
,mandibular canal and is most commonly injured during
impacted third molar extractions, leading to temporary or
permanent paresthesia.
3. Which imaging modality is most appropriate for evaluating
a complex midface fracture?
A. Panoramic radiograph
B. Cone-beam CT
C. MRI
D. Lateral cephalogram
Correct Answer: B. Cone-beam CT
Rationale: Cone-beam CT provides detailed 3D imaging of facial
bones, allowing precise evaluation of fracture patterns,
displacement, and involvement of the orbit or sinus.
4. What is the primary cause of osteoradionecrosis of the jaw?
A. Bacterial infection
B. Hypovascularity and hypoxia
C. Trauma from extraction
D. Malnutrition
Correct Answer: B. Hypovascularity and hypoxia
Rationale: Osteoradionecrosis occurs due to radiation-induced
damage to bone vasculature, leading to hypoxia,
hypocellularity, and inability to repair microtrauma.
,5. The Le Fort II fracture is characterized by:
A. Horizontal fracture above the teeth
B. Pyramidal fracture involving the maxilla, nasal bridge, and
orbital rim
C. Fracture involving the zygomatic arch only
D. Fracture through the nasoethmoid complex
Correct Answer: B. Pyramidal fracture involving the maxilla,
nasal bridge, and orbital rim
Rationale: Le Fort II fractures are pyramidal, with the apex at
the nasal bridge, involving the maxilla, inferior orbital rim, and
nasal bones.
6. Which antibiotic is first-line for odontogenic infections in
immunocompetent patients?
A. Amoxicillin
B. Ciprofloxacin
C. Doxycycline
D. Azithromycin
Correct Answer: A. Amoxicillin
Rationale: Amoxicillin is the first-line agent for odontogenic
infections due to its efficacy against Streptococcus and
anaerobic oral flora.
, 7. What is the most common site of oral squamous cell
carcinoma?
A. Floor of the mouth
B. Buccal mucosa
C. Tongue (lateral borders)
D. Soft palate
Correct Answer: C. Tongue (lateral borders)
Rationale: The lateral borders of the tongue are the most
frequent site for oral squamous cell carcinoma, often associated
with tobacco and alcohol use.
8. Which of the following is a contraindication to immediate
implant placement?
A. Presence of acute infection
B. Adequate bone volume
C. Healthy soft tissue
D. Good patient hygiene
Correct Answer: A. Presence of acute infection
Rationale: Active infection increases the risk of implant failure
and poor osseointegration; it must be resolved before implant
placement.
9. What is the preferred management for an isolated
zygomatic arch fracture without functional impairment?
Questions WITH CORRECT ANSWERS (VERIFIED
ANSWERS) PLUS RATIONALES 2026 Q&A |INSTANT
DOWNLOAD PDF
1. What is the most common benign tumor of the salivary
glands?
A. Mucoepidermoid carcinoma
B. Adenoid cystic carcinoma
C. Pleomorphic adenoma
D. Warthin tumor
Correct Answer: C. Pleomorphic adenoma
Rationale: Pleomorphic adenoma is the most common benign
salivary gland tumor, usually occurring in the parotid gland and
characterized by slow growth and a low risk of malignant
transformation.
2. Which cranial nerve is most at risk during a mandibular
third molar extraction?
A. Hypoglossal nerve
B. Inferior alveolar nerve
C. Lingual nerve
D. Facial nerve
Correct Answer: B. Inferior alveolar nerve
Rationale: The inferior alveolar nerve runs within the
,mandibular canal and is most commonly injured during
impacted third molar extractions, leading to temporary or
permanent paresthesia.
3. Which imaging modality is most appropriate for evaluating
a complex midface fracture?
A. Panoramic radiograph
B. Cone-beam CT
C. MRI
D. Lateral cephalogram
Correct Answer: B. Cone-beam CT
Rationale: Cone-beam CT provides detailed 3D imaging of facial
bones, allowing precise evaluation of fracture patterns,
displacement, and involvement of the orbit or sinus.
4. What is the primary cause of osteoradionecrosis of the jaw?
A. Bacterial infection
B. Hypovascularity and hypoxia
C. Trauma from extraction
D. Malnutrition
Correct Answer: B. Hypovascularity and hypoxia
Rationale: Osteoradionecrosis occurs due to radiation-induced
damage to bone vasculature, leading to hypoxia,
hypocellularity, and inability to repair microtrauma.
,5. The Le Fort II fracture is characterized by:
A. Horizontal fracture above the teeth
B. Pyramidal fracture involving the maxilla, nasal bridge, and
orbital rim
C. Fracture involving the zygomatic arch only
D. Fracture through the nasoethmoid complex
Correct Answer: B. Pyramidal fracture involving the maxilla,
nasal bridge, and orbital rim
Rationale: Le Fort II fractures are pyramidal, with the apex at
the nasal bridge, involving the maxilla, inferior orbital rim, and
nasal bones.
6. Which antibiotic is first-line for odontogenic infections in
immunocompetent patients?
A. Amoxicillin
B. Ciprofloxacin
C. Doxycycline
D. Azithromycin
Correct Answer: A. Amoxicillin
Rationale: Amoxicillin is the first-line agent for odontogenic
infections due to its efficacy against Streptococcus and
anaerobic oral flora.
, 7. What is the most common site of oral squamous cell
carcinoma?
A. Floor of the mouth
B. Buccal mucosa
C. Tongue (lateral borders)
D. Soft palate
Correct Answer: C. Tongue (lateral borders)
Rationale: The lateral borders of the tongue are the most
frequent site for oral squamous cell carcinoma, often associated
with tobacco and alcohol use.
8. Which of the following is a contraindication to immediate
implant placement?
A. Presence of acute infection
B. Adequate bone volume
C. Healthy soft tissue
D. Good patient hygiene
Correct Answer: A. Presence of acute infection
Rationale: Active infection increases the risk of implant failure
and poor osseointegration; it must be resolved before implant
placement.
9. What is the preferred management for an isolated
zygomatic arch fracture without functional impairment?
