Tech in Surgery NCCT Practice Exam: 100% Verified Solutions – A+ Guide

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Tech in Surgery NCCT Practice Exam: 100%
Verified Solutions – A+ Guide
1. 157. These instruments are used in orthopedic cases except which one?
A. Power drill
B. Keratome
C. Rongeur
D. Mallet - ANSWER Correct response:
Keratome
Rationale: A keratome is a delicate blade used in ophthalmic cases to create
incisions in the cornea. The other instruments listed are all commonly found
in orthopedic cases to manipulate bone tissue.

2. After a surgical procedure, non-sharp infectious waste is separated from the
other waste and placed in which of the following?
A. Standard trash bag
B. Biohazard bag
C. Yellow plastic bag
D. Plastic trash bag - ANSWER Correct response:
Biohazard bag
Rationale: Blood and body fluid-contaminated non-sharp disposable items
("infectious waste") must be disposed of separately from routine surgery
department waste using red-colored biohazard bags. The other options do
not provide enough protection for those disposing of the infectious waste.

3. A Tech in Surgery is preparing to scrub for a knee replacement. Although
she/he has verified the chemical indicator had changed, she/he still removed
a few individual items from the tray for closer examination prior to
removing the tray from the pan. What is she/he looking for?
A. To count every instrument in the set to verify an even number.
B. To take out instruments suspected the surgeon will not use in the case.
C. To making sure the instruments have been sharpened for the case.
D. To perform one last check for potential bioburden on select
instruments. - ANSWER Correct response:
To perform one last check for potential bioburden on select instruments.

Rationale: She/he is performing one last check for potential bioburden - tiny
bone fragments or small flakes of cement can sometimes remain in

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miniscule cracks and crevices of specific instruments. There is no need to
count instruments for a knee replacement. With the exception of scissors,
instruments needed to cut tissue/bone are invariably disposable and would
not be in the instrument pan. The tech should keep all the instruments in the
pan, even if she/he believes the surgeon may not need them.

4. The greatest risk during the induction and emergence phases of general
anesthesia is which of the following?
A. stroke
B. shock
C. aspiration
D. cardiac arrest - ANSWER Correct response:
aspiration

Rationale: Aspiration, defined as inhaling a foreign fluid or solids into the
lungs, is the greatest risk during induction and emergence phases of general
anesthesia. The other options are not the greatest risk during the induction
and emergence phases of general anesthesia. Stroke is also known as a
cerebrovascular accident (CVA) occurs when there is a blockage in the
blood supply to the brain is blocked. Cardiac arrest is the cessation of heart
pumping action and blood circulation. Shock is an abnormal physiological
state indicated by the presence of reduced cardiac output.

5. During a surgical procedure involving delicate and easily damaged tissue,
which type of suture needle is the most appropriate to minimize tissue
trauma and ensure secure tissue approximation?
A. Reverse cutting needle
B. Blunt-tipped needle
C. Cutting needle
D. Tapered needle - ANSWER Correct response:
Tapered needle
Rationale: Tapered needles have a round body that gradually tapers to a
sharp point, allowing for precise penetration without causing excessive
tissue trauma or tearing. Cutting needles have a triangular cross-section with
a sharp edge on the inside curve, which is effective for tough tissues but can
cause more trauma in fragile tissues. Reverse cutting needle: Reverse cutting
needles have a cutting edge on the outer curve, designed to minimize tissue
trauma in tough tissues but may not be suitable for fragile tissues. Blunt-
tipped needle: Blunt-tipped needles have a rounded tip without a cutting

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edge, suitable for passing through tissues without causing cutting or tearing,
but may not provide the necessary precision for delicate tissue suturing.

6. The following rules apply to handling the prosthetic devices (such as breast
prostheses and tissue expanders) during plastic surgery procedures, except
which one?
A. Powder must be wiped from gloves before handling.
B. Gloves must be changed to non-sterile to first pick it up.
C. Prosthesis must be placed on a lint-free surface to sterilize.
D. Prosthesis must be dried completely before implanting it. - ANSWER
Correct response:
Prosthesis must be dried completely before implanting it.
Rationale: Breast prostheses and tissue expanders should be placed in a
container with sterile saline or antibiotic solution on the sterile field. The
other options are inappropriate and provide opportunities for contamination.

7. When exposed to ionizing radiation during a surgical procedure, OR staff
should wear PPE including which of the following?
A. Silicone
B. Steel
C. Rubber
D. Lead - ANSWER Correct response:
Lead
Rationale: All members of the sterile team should wear lead aprons if
fluoroscopy will be used, or X-rays taken throughout a procedure. The lead
apron must be donned prior to performing the surgical scrub and worn under
the sterile gown. The other options do not protect against radiation.

8. The following create increased risk of complications during surgery for
geriatric patients, except which one?
A. Age-related physiological changes
B. History of healthy habits
C. Effects from physical trauma
D. Comorbidities - ANSWER Correct response:
History of healthy habits

Rationale: A history of health habits can help reduce the risk of
complications. Physical trauma (e.g., fractured hip), comorbidities, and age-
related physiological changes increase the risk of complications during
surgery for geriatric patients.

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9. Which of the following kills all microorganisms except spores?
A. Intermediate-level disinfection
B. Low-level disinfection
C. High-level disinfection
D. Basic disinfection - ANSWER Correct response:
High-level disinfection
Rationale: High-level disinfection kills all microorganisms except spores.
(Disinfection is different from Sterilization which does kill spores.)
Incorrect: Intermediate-level disinfection is effective against most bacteria,
viruses, and fungi but does not reliably kill bacterial spores. It is used for
surfaces and equipment that come into contact with non-intact skin or
mucous membranes. It is less effective than high-level disinfection when it
comes to spore removal. Low-level disinfection is effective against some
bacteria and viruses but is not effective against spores, fungi, or resistant
pathogens. It is typically used for cleaning surfaces and equipment that are
not intended to come into contact with mucous membranes. Basic
disinfection generally refers to standard cleaning methods that remove dirt
and some microorganisms but do not ensure the complete elimination of
pathogens, including bacterial spores. It is not as effective as high- or
intermediate-level disinfection.
10.What parts of the operating room (OR) table need to be cleaned during a
terminal cleaning (end-of-day)?
A. Surface, attachments, base, and wheels
B. Surface only
C. Surface and attachments used
D. Surface, attachments, and base - ANSWER Correct response:
Surface, attachments, base, and wheels

Rationale: Surface, attachments, base, and wheels. It is important to be
thorough during any cleaning of the OR, but a terminal clean should be
doubly so. Some cases are messier than others, and it's possible for blood
and bioburden to become trapped in crevices and within the wheels of the
bed.

11.What bacterial spore is used as a biological indicator for steam sterilization?
A. Staphylococcus aureus
B. Bacillus atrophaeus
C. Clostridium tetani
D. Geobacillus stearothermophilus - ANSWER Correct response: