Jnc 8 Guías de estudio, Notas de estudios & Resúmenes

A 42-year-old Asian male presents for follow-up of elevated blood pressure. He has no additional chronic medical problems and is otherwise asymptomatic. An examination is significant for a blood pressure of 162/95 mm Hg but is otherwise unremarkable. Laboratory Findings unremarkable Urine microalbumin negative According to the American College of Cardiology/American Heart Association 2017 guidelines, which one of the following would be the most appropriate medication to initiate at this time?...

Elderly have a blunted fever response to infection due to an impairment in which body system? correct answersNervous system Prophylactic treatment of Pneumocystis jirovecii correct answersCo-trimoxazole (trimethoprim-sulfamoxazole) ECG changes in hypokalemia correct answersbroad T wave and prominent U waves Atypical UTI symptoms usually found in elderly pts correct answerslethargy decreased appetite incontinence acidosis and hyperthermia have what affect on the oxyhemoglobin disso...

A 42-year-old Asian male presents for follow-up of elevated blood pressure. He has no additional chronic medical problems and is otherwise asymptomatic. An examination is significant for a blood pressure of 162/95 mm Hg but is otherwise unremarkable. Laboratory Findings unremarkable Urine microalbumin negative According to the American College of Cardiology/American Heart Association 2017 guidelines, which one of the following would be the most appropriate medication to initiate at th...

FINAL AANP FNP CERTIFICATION LATEST WITH 100 REAL EXAM QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS(VERIFIED ANSWERS)| Question 1: Which of the following is a first-line treatment for uncomplicated hypertension in adults according to the JNC 8 guidelines? A) Amlodipine B) Lisinopril C) Hydrochlorothiazide D) Metoprolol Explanation 1: B) Lisinopril Explanation: According to the Eighth Joint National Committee (JNC 8) guidelines, the first-line treatment for uncomplicated hypertension in adults...

AANP Exam Study Guide. (Answered)-Legg-Calve-Perthes Disease - A 7-year-old male presents with a painless limp, antalgic gait, muscle spasm, mildly restricted hip abduction and internal rotation, proximal thigh atrophy, and slightly short stature. MMR - Initial given at 12 months and second dose 4-6 years. Can give a monovalent under 12 months if there is an outbreak. Actinic Keratosis - Patchy, scaly, raised, irregular lesions in sun-exposed areas that are tri-colored. Pre-malignant and 20% can...

Barkley AG-ACNP Certification Review 2022 Exam Questions And Answers Elderly have a blunted fever response to infection due to an impairment in which body system? Nervous system Prophylactic treatment of Pneumocystis jirovecii Co-trimoxazole (trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole) Brainpower Read More Previous Play Next Rewind 10 seconds Move forward 10 seconds Unmute 0:04 / 0:15 Full screen ECG changes in hypokalemia broad T wave and prominent U waves Atypical UTI sy...

NR 603 Week 3 Case Study – CardiovascularWhat leads demonstrate the ST depression? Lorene M. EKG demonstrates ST depression through her EKG reading. The noted depression, however is seen specifically in leads I, II, V4, V5. Her EKG also reveals and ST elevation in aVR. When observing and reading the entirety of her EKG, Lorene shows signs of acute coronary artery syndrome (ACS) (Nicole et al., 2017). In ACS, an EKG demonstrates six or more leads with ST depression. However, the ST depress...

A 42-year-old Asian male presents for follow-up of elevated blood pressure. He has no additional chronic medical problems and is otherwise asymptomatic. An examination is significant for a blood pressure of 162/95 mm Hg but is otherwise unremarkable. Laboratory work shows that his BMP is within normal limits. According to the American College of Cardiology/American Heart Association 2017 guidelines, which one of the following would be the most appropriate medication to initiate at this time?...

A 42-year-old Asian male presents for follow-up of elevated blood pressure. He has no additional chronic medical problems and is otherwise asymptomatic. An examination is significant for a blood pressure of 162/95 mm Hg but is otherwise unremarkable. Laboratory work shows that his BMP is within normal limits. According to the American College of Cardiology/American Heart Association 2017 guidelines, which one of the following would be the most appropriate medication to initiate at this time?...

ABFM HYPERTENSION Exam Questions With Correct Answers A 39-year-old male sees you for evaluation of high blood pressure. His past medical history is unremarkable. On examination he has a BMI of 32 kg/m2 and you note that he has a round face and a plethoric complexion. His blood pressure is 150/98 mm Hg, his pulse rate is 88 beats/min, and his respiratory rate is 16/min. Other notable findings include a prominent dorsal cervical fat pad and supraclavicular fat pads, as well as violaceous striae...