Final Exam: Care Management 2 (NUR 3219C) | Latest Fall 2025-26 Answered 100% Correct - Keiser University.

Final Exam: Care Management 2 (NUR 3219C) | Latest Fall 2025-26 Answered 100% Correct - Keiser University. 1. The nurse is assessing the knowledge of new parents with a child born with maple syrup urine disease (MSUD). This is an autosomal recessive inherited disorder, which means a. Both genes of a pair must be abnormal for the disorder to be expressed. b. Only one copy of the abnormal genes is required for the disorder to be expressed c. The disorder occurs in males and heterozygous females d. The disorder is carried in the X chromosome 2. A key finding from the Human Genome Project is a. Approximately 20,500 genes make up the genome b. all human beings are 80.99% identical at the DNA level c. human genes produce only one protein per gene; other mammals produce three proteins per gene d. single gene testing will become a standardized test for all pregnant patients in the future 3. With regard to prenatal genetic testing, nurse should be aware that a. Maternal serum screening can determine whether a pregnant woman is at risk of carrying a fetus with Down Syndrome b. carrier screening tests look for gene mutations of people already showing symptoms of a disease c. predisposition testing predicts with near certainty that symptoms will appear d. presymptomatic testing is used to predict the likelihood of breast cancer 4. At approximately ___ weeks of gestation, lecithin is forming on the alveolar surfaces, the eyelids open, and the fetus measures approximately 27 cm crown to rump and weighs approximately 1110 g. a. 20 b. 24 c. 28 d. 30 5. The nurse caring for the laboring woman should know that meconium is produced by • a. fetal intestines b. fetal kidneys c. amniotic fluid d. the placenta 6. Sally comes in for her first prenatal examination. This is her first child. She asks you (the nurse), "How does my baby get air inside my uterus?" The correct response is a. "The baby's lungs work in utero to exchange oxygen and carbon dioxide " b. "The baby absorbs oxygen from your blood system." c 'The placenta provides oxygen to the baby and excretes carbon dioxide into your bloodstream." d. The placenta delivers oxygen-rich blood through the umbilical artery to the baby's abdomen." 7. The nurse caring for a pregnant patient knows that her health teaching regarding fetal circulation has been effective when the patient reports that she has been sleeping a. in a side lying position b. on her back with a pillow under her knees c. wit the head of the bed elevated d. on her abdomen. 8. When nurses help their expectant mothers assess daily fetal movement counts, they should be aware that a. alcohol or cigarette smoke can irritate the fetus into greater activity. b. "kick counts" should be taken every half hour and averaged every 6 hours, with every other 6-hr stretch off.c. the fetal alarm signal should go off when fetal movements stop entirely for 12 hours. d. obese mothers familiar with their bodies can assess fetal movement as well as average-size women. 9. Nurses should be aware that the biophysical profile (BPP) a. is an accurate indicator of impending fetal death b. is a compilation of health risk factors of the mother during the later stages of pregnancy c. consists of a doppler blood flow analysis and an amniotic fluid index d. involves an invasive form of ultrasound examination 10. Compared with contraction stress test (CST), nonstress test (NST) for antepartum fetal assessment • a. has no known contraindications b. has fewer false-positive results c. is more sensitive in detecting fetal compromise d. is slightly more expensive 11. A pregnant woman's biophysical profile score is 8. She asks the nurse to explain the results. The nurse's best response is • a. "The test results are within normal limits." b. Immediate delivery by cesarean birth is being considered." c. Further testing will be performed to determine the meaning of this score." d. An obstetric specialist will evaluate the results of this profile and, within the next week, will inform you of your options regarding delivery 12. The nurse recognizes that a nonstress test (NST) in which two or more fetal heart rate (FHR) accelerations of 15 beats/min or more occur with fetal movement in a 20-minute period is a. nonreactive b. positive c. negative d. reactive 13. When assessing the fetus using Leopold maneuvers, the nurse feels a round, firm, movable fetal part in the fundal portion of the uterus and a long, smooth surface in the mother's right side close to midline. What is the likely position of the fetus? a. ROA b. LSP c. RSA d. LOA 14. The nurse would expect which maternal cardiovascular finding during labor? a. Increased cardiac output b. Decreased pulse rate c. Decreased white blood cell (WBC) count d. Decreased blood pressure 15. While providing care to a patient in active labor, the nurse should instruct the woman that a. the supine position commonly used in the United States increases blood flow b. the "all fours" position, on her hands and knees, is hard on her back. c. frequent changes in position will help relieve her fatigue and increase her comfort. d. in a sitting or squatting position, her abdominal muscles will have to work harder.16. In order to care for obstetric patients adequately, the nurse understands that labor contractions facilitate cervical dilation by a. contracting the lower uterine segment. b. enlarging the internal size of the uterus. c. promoting blood flow to the cervix d. pulling the cervix over the fetus and amniotic fluid 17. The nurse providing care for the laboring woman realizes that variable fetal heart rate (FHR) decelerations are caused by a. altered fetal cerebral blood flow. b. umbilical cord compression. c. uteroplacental insufficiency d. fetal hypoxemia 18. The nurse caring for the woman in labor should understand that maternal hypotension can result in a. early decelerations. b. fetal dysrhythmias • c uteroplacental insufficiency. d. spontaneous rupture of membranes 19. What three measures should the nurse implement to provide intrauterine resuscitation? Select the response that best indicates the priority of actions that should be taken? a. Call the provider, reposition the mother, and perform a vaginal examination b. Reposition the mother, increase IV fluids, and provide oxygen via face mask c. Administer oxygen to the mother, increase IV fluids, and notify the care provider d. Perform a vaginal examination, reposition the mother, and provide oxygen via face mask 20. A new patient and her partner arrive in the labor, delivery, recovery, and after birth unit for the birth of their first child. You apply the electronic fetal monitor (EFM) to the woman. Her partner asks you to explain what is printing on the graph, referring to the EFM strip. He wants to know what the baby's heart rate should be. Your best response is a. "Don't worry about that machine; that's my job." b. The top line graphs the baby's heart rate: Generally, the heart rate is between 110 and 160. The heart rate will fluctuate in response to what is happening during labor." c. “The top line graphs the baby’s heart rate, and the bottom line lets me know how strong contractions are.” d. “Your doctor will explain all of that later.” 21. When using intermittent auscultation (IA) for fetal heart rate, nurses should be aware that a. they can be expected to cover only two or three patients when IA is the primary method of fatal assessment b. the best course is to use the descriptive terms associated with electronic fetal monitoring (EFM) when documenting results c. If the heartbeat cannot be found immediately, a shift must be made to EFM. d. ultrasound can be used to find the fetal heartbeat and reassure the mother if initial difficulty was a factor. 22. When assessing the relative advantages and disadvantages of internal and external electronic fetal monitoring, nurses comprehend that both a. can be used when membranes are intact b. measure the frequency, duration, and intensity of uterine contractions c. may need to rely on the woman to indicate when uterine activity (UA) is occurring d. can be used during the antepartum and intrapartum periods23. A woman gave birth to a healthy infant boy 5 days ago. What type of lochia would the nurse expect to find when assessing this woman? a. lochia rubria b. lochia sangra c. lochia alba d. lochia serosa 24. Two days ago, a woman gave birth to a full-term infant. Last night she awakened several times to urinate and noted that her gown and bedding were wet front profuse diaphoresis. One mechanism for the diaphoresis and diuresis that this woman is experiencing during the early after birth period is a. elevated temperature caused by after birth infection. b. Increased basal metabolic rate after giving birth c. loss of increased blood volume associated with pregnancy. d. increased venous pressure in the lower extremities 25. With regard to after birth pains, nurses shloud be aware that these pains are a. caused by mild, continuous contractions for the duration of the after-birth period b. more common in first time mothers • c more noticeable in births in which the uterus was overdistended. d. alleviated somewhat when the mother breastfeeds 26. With regard to after birth ovarian function, nurses should be aware that a. almost 75% of women who do not breastfeed resume menstruating within a month after birth b. ovulation occurs slightly earlier for breastfeeding women c. because of menstruation/ovulation schedules, contraception considerations can be postponed until after the puerperium. • d the first menstrual flow after childbirth usually is heavier than normal 27. As relates to the condition and reconditioning of the urinary system after childbirth, nurses should be aware that a. kidney function returns to normal a few days after birth. b. diastasis recti abdominis is a common condition that alters the voiding reflex c. fluid loss through perspiration and increased urinary output accounts for a weight loss of more than 2 kg during the puerperium. d. with adequate emptying of the bladder, bladder tone usually is restored 2 to 3 weeks after childbirth. 28. Childbirth may result in injuries to the vagina and uterus. Pelvic floor exercises, also known as Kegel exercises, will help to strengthen the perineal muscles and encourage healing. The nurse knows that the patient understands the correct process for completing these conditioning exercises when she reports a. “I contract my thighs, buttocks, and abdomen.” b. “I do 10 of these exercises every day.” c. “I stand while practicing this new exercise routine.” d. “I pretend that I am trying to stop the flow of urine midstream.” 29. Which finding 12 hours after birth requires further assessment? • a. The fundus is palpable two fingerbreadths above the umbilicus b. The fundus is palpable at the level of the umbilicus. c. The fundus is palpable one fingerbreadth below the umbilicus. d. The fundus is palpable two fingerbreadths below the umbilicus. 30. Which documentation on a woman's chart on after birth day 14 indicates a normal involution process?a. moderate bright red lochial flow b. Breasts firm and tender * c. Fundus below the symphysis and not palpable d. Episiotomy slightly red and puffy 31. A primary nursing responsibility when caring for a woman experiencing an obstetric hemorrhage associated with uterine atony is to a. Establish venous access b. Perform fundal massage c. Prepare the woman for surgical intervention d. Catheterize the bladder. 32. Which woman is at greatest risk for early postpartum hemorrhage (PPH)? a. A primiparous woman (G 2 P1 00 1) being prepared for an emergency cesarean birth for fetal distress • b. A woman with severe preeclampsia who is receiving magnesium sulfate and whose labor is being induced. c. A multiparous woman (G 3 P 2 0 0 2) with an 8-hour labor d. A primigravida in spontaneous labor with preterm twins 33. A woman who has recently given birth complains of pain and tenderness in her leg. On physical examination the nurse notices warmth and redness over an enlarged, hardened area. Ine nurse should suspect _____ and should confirm the diagnosis by____. a. disseminated intravascular coagulation, asking for laboratory tests b. von Willebrand disease; noting whether bleeding times have been extended c. thrombophlebitis; using real time and color Doppler ultrasound d. coagulopathies, drawing blood for laboratory analysis 34. A woman delivered a 9-Ib, 10-ounce baby 1 hour ago. When you arrive to perform her 15-minute assessment, she tells you that she "feels all wet underneath." You discover that both pads are completely saturated and that she is lying in a 6-inch-diameter puddle of blood. What is your first action? a. call for help b. assess the fundus for firmness c. Take her blood pressure d. Check the perineum for lacerations. 35. It nonsurgical treatment for late after birth hemorrhage is ineffective, which surgical procedure is appropriate to correct the cause of this condition? a. Hysterectomy b. Laparoscopy c. Laparotomy d. D&C 36. Infants of mothers with diabetes are at higher risk for developing a. anemia b. hyponatremia c. Respiratory distress syndrome d. sepsis 37. On day 3 of life, a newborn continues to require 100% oxygen by nasal cannula. The parents ask whether they can hold their infant during his next gavage feeding. Given that this newborn is physiologically stable, what response would the nurse give? a. "Parents are not allowed to hold infants who depend on oxygen."b. "You may hold only your baby's hand during the feeding." c. "Feedings cause more physiologic stress, so the baby must be closely monitored. Therefore, I don't think you should hold the baby." • d. "You may hold your baby during the feeding.' 38. When providing an infant with a gavage feeding, which of the following should be documented each time? a. The infant’s abdominal circumference after the feeding b. The infant's heart rate and respirations c. The infant's suck and swallow coordination • d. The infant's response to the feeding 39. In caring for the preterm infant, what complication is thought to be a result of high arterial blood oxygen level? a. Necrotizing enterocolitis (NEC) b. Retinopathy of prematurity (ROP) c. Bronchopulmonary dysplasia (BPD) d. Intraventricular hemorrhage (IVH) 40. Necrotizing enterocolitis (NEC) is an acute inflammatory disease of the gastrointestinal mucosa that can progress to perforation of the bowel. Care is supportive, however, interventions may decrease the risk of NEC. To develop an optimal plan of care for this infant, the nurse must understand which intervention has the greatest effect on lowering the risk of NEC a. early enteral feedings. b. breastfeeding c. exchange transfusion. prophylactic probiotics 41. Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) may be perinatally transmitted a. only in the third trimester from the maternal circulation. b. by a needlestick injury at birth from unsterile instruments c. only through the ingestion of amniotic fluid • d. through the Ingestion of breast milk from an infected mother 42. During a prenatal examination, the woman reports having two cats at home. The nurse informs her that she should not be cleaning the litter box while she is pregnant. When the woman ask’s why, the nurse’s best response would be a. Your cats could be carrying toxoplasmosis. This is a zoonotic parasite that can infect you and have severe effects on your unborn child b. "You and your baby can be exposed to the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV in your cats feces " c. “It’s just gross. You should make your husband clean the litter boxes." d. "Cat feces are known to carry Escherichia coli, which can cause a severe infection in both you and your baby." 43. In caring for the mother who has abused (or is abusing) alcohol and for her infant, nurses should be aware that a. the pattern of growth restriction of the fetus begun in prenatal life is halted after birth, and normal growth takes over. b. two-thirds of newborns with fetal alcohol syndrome (FAS) are boys c. alcohol-related neurodevelopmental disorders not sufficient to meet FAS criteria (learning disabilities, speech, and language problems) are often not detected until the child goes to schoold. both the distinctive facial features of the FAS infant and the diminished mental capacities tend toward normal over time 44. With regard to herolytic diseases of the newborn, nurses should be aware that a. Rh Incompatibility matters only when an Rh-negative child is born to an Rh-positive mother. b. ABO incompatibility is more likely than Rh Incompatibility to precipitate significant anemia. c. exchange transfusions frequently are required in the treatment of hemolytic disorders. d. the indirect Coombs test is performed on the mother before birth; the direct Coombs test is performed on the cord blood after birth 45. An infant with severe meconium aspiration syndrome (MAS) is not responding to conventional treatment. Which highly technical method of treatment may be necessary for an infant who does not respond to conventional treatment? a. Extracorporeal membrane oxygenation b. Respiratory support with a ventilator c. Insertion of a laryngoscope and suctioning of the trachea d. Insertion of an endotracheal tube 46. Which assessment indicates to a nurse that a school aged child is in need of pain medication? a. The child is lying rigidly in bed and not moving. b. The child's current vital signs are consistent with vital signs over the past 4 hours. c. The child becomes quiet when held and cuddled. d. The child has just returned from the recovery room 47. Which is an appropriate play activity for a 7-month-old infant to encourage visual stimulation? • a. Playing peek-a-bool b. Playing pat-a-cake c. Imitating animal sounds d. Showing how to clap hands 48. When is the best age for solid food to be introduced into the infant's diet? a. 2 to 3 months •b. 4 to 6 months c When birth weight has tripled d. When tooth eruption has started 49. What is an important nursing responsibility when dealing with a family experiencing the loss of an infant from sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS)? a. Explain how SIDS could have been predicted and prevented. b. Interview parents in depth concerning the circumstances surrounding the infant's death. c. Discourage parents from making a last visit with the infant d. Make a follow up home visit to parents as soon as possible after the infant’s death 50. A parent asks the nurse whether her infant is susceptible to pertussis. The nurse's response should be based on which statement concerning susceptibility to pertussis? a. Neonates will be immune the first few months b. If the mother has had the disease, the infant will receive passive immunity. c. Children younger than 1 year seldom contract this disease. d. Most children are highly susceptible from birth51. The most appropriate nursing action to implement when a preschooler being prepped for outpatient surgery refused to allow the parent to remove his/her underwear? • a Allow the child to wear their underpants. b. Discuss to the mother why this is important. c Ask the mother to explain to her child why he/she must remove the underwear. d. Explain in a kind, matter of fact manner that this is hospital policy. 52. What is an important nursing consideration when performing a bladder catheterization on a young boy? a. Use clean technique, not Standard Precautions b. Insert 2% lidocaine lubricant into the urethra c. Lubricate catheter with water-soluble lubricant such as K-Y Jelly d Delay catheterization for 20 minutes while anesthetic lubricant is absorbed 53. What is the most appropriate statement for the nurse to make to a 5-year-old child who is undergoing venipuncture? a. You must hold still, or I'll have someone hold you down. This is not going to hurt." b. This will hurt like a pinch. I'll get someone to help hold your arm still so it will be over fast and hurt less." c. "Be a big boy and hold still. This will be over in just a second." d. “I'm sending your mother out so she won't be scared. You are big, so hold still and this will be over soon." 54. When caring for a child with an Intravenous infusion, the nurse should include which intervention in the plan of care? a. Using a macrodropper to facilitate reaching the prescribed flow rate b. Avoid restraining the child to prevent undue emotional stress c. Changing the insertion site every 24 hours • d. Observing the insertion site frequently for signs of infiltration 55. It is important to make certain that sensory connectors and oximeters are compatible since wiring that is incompatible increases the risk of which injury? a. Hyperthermia b. Electrocution c. Pressure necrosis •d. Burns under sensors 56. What intervention should the nurse implement when suctioning a child with a tracheostomy? a. Encouraging the child to cough to raise the secretions before suctioning b. Selecting a catheter with a diameter three-fourths as large as the diameter of the tracheostomy tube • c. Ensuring that each pass of the suction catheter take no longer than 10 seconds d. Allowing the child to rest alter every 5 times the suction catheter is passed 57. A child is receiving total parenteral nutrition (IPN, hyperalimentation). At the end of 8 hours, the nurse observes the solution and notes that 200 mL/8 hr, is being infused rather than the ordered amount of 300 ml8 hr. The nurse should adjust the rate so that how much will infuse during the next 8 hours? a. 200 mL • b. 300 mL c. 350 mL d. 400 mL 58. What critical information should the nurse incorporate into care when using restraints on a child? • a. Use the least restrictive type of restraint. b. Tie knots securely so they cannot be untied easilyc. secure the ties to the mattress or side rails d. Remove restraints every 4 hours to assess skin 59. After collecting blood by venipuncture in the antecubital fossa, what intervention should the nurse implement in order to assure control of any bleeding? a. Keep arm extended while applying a bandage to the site • b. Keep arm extended and apply pressure to the site for a few minutes c. Apply a bandage to the site, and keep the arm flexed for 10 minutes. d. Apply d gauze pad or cotton ball to the site and keep the arm flexed for several minutes. 60. When administering a gavage feeding to a school age child, the nurse should implement what intervention to assure safety? a. Lubricate the tip of the feeding tube with Vaseline to facilitate passage b. Check the placement of the tube by inserting 20 mL of sterile water c. Administer feedings over 5 to 10 minutes d. Position the child on the right side after administering the feeding 61. An 8-year-old child is diagnosed with influenza, probably type A disease. What intervention should be included in the plan of care? a. Clear liquid diet for hydration b. Aspirin to control fever c. Oseltamivir to reduce symptoms d. Antibiotics to prevent bacterial infection 62. A parent whose two school-are children diagnosed with exercise induced bronchospasm (EIB) asks the nurse in what sports, if any, they can participate. The nurse should recommend which sport? a. Soccer b. Running c. Swimming d. Basketball 63. In providing nourishment for a child with cystic fibrosis (CF), what diet consideration should be stressed to both the child and caregivers? a. Diet should be high in carbohydrates and protein b. Diet should be high in easily digested carbohydrates and fats. c. Most fruits and vegetables are not well tolerated. d. Fats and proteins must be greatly curtailed. 64. Abdominal thrusts are recommended for airway obstruction in children older than a. 1 year b. 4 years c. 8 years d. 12 years 65. What nursing intervention should be included in the plan of care for a young child diagnosed with pneumonia? a. Monitor for abdominal pain b. Encourage the child to lie on the unaffected side c. Administer analgesics d. Place the child in the Trendelenburg position66. Which intervention for treating croup at home should be taught to parents? a. Have a decongestant available to give the child when an attack occurs. b. Have the child sleep in a dry room. c. Take the child outside if air is cool and moist. d. Give the child an antibiotic at bedtime 67. Which information should the nurse stress to workers at a day care center about respiratory syncytial virus (RSV)?) a. RSV is transmitted through particles in the air b. RSV can live on skin or paper for up to a few seconds after contact. c. RSV can survive on nonporous subraces for about 60 minutes. d. Frequent hand washing can decrease the spread of the virus 68. An 18-month-old child is seen in the clinic is diagnosed with acute otitis media (AOM). Oral amoxicillin is prescribed. Which statement made by the parent Indicates a correct understanding of the instructions? • a. "I should administer all the prescribed medication." b. "I should continue medication until the symptoms subside." c. “I will Immedidtely stop giving medication il I notice a change in hearing.” d. "I will stop giving medication if fever is still present in 24 hours." 69. An infant is brought to the emergency department with poor skin turgor, sunken fontanel, lethargy, and tachycardia. This is suggestive of which condition? a. Overhydration * b. Dehydration c. Sodium excess d. Calcium excess 70. What is a common cause of acute diarrhea? a. Hirschsprung’s disease b. Antibiotic therapy c. Hypothyroidism d. Meconium ileus 71. Therapeutic management of the child with acute diarrhea and dehydration usually begins with what intervention? a. Clear liquids b. Adsorbents such as kaolin and pectin c. Oral rehydration solution (ORS) d. Antidiarrheal medications such as paregoric 72. What condition is characterized by a chronic inflammatory process that may involve any part of the gastrointestinal (Gl) tract from mouth to anus? a. Crohn's disease b. Ulcerative colitis c. Meckel's diverticulum d. Irritable bowel syndrome 73. What is used to treat moderate to-severe inflammatory bowel disease? a. Antacids b. Antibiotics c. Corticosteroidsd. Antidiarrheal medications 74. Which type of hernia has an impaired blood supply to the herniated organ? a. Hiatal hernia b. Incarcerated hernia c. Omphalocele • d. Strangulated hernia 75. An important nursing consideration in the care of a child with celiac disease is to facilitate which intervention? • a. Refer to a nutritionist for detailed dietary instructions and education b. Help the child and family understand that diet restrictions are usually only temporary c. Teach proper hand washing and Standard Precautions to prevent disease transmission. d. Suggest ways to cope more effectively with stress to minimize symptoms. 76. Which description or a stool is characteristic of intussusception? a. Ribbon-like stools b. Hard stools positive for guaiac c. “Currant jelly” stools d. Loose, foul-smelling stools 77. What should the nurse stress in a teaching plan for the mother of an 11-year-old diagnosed with ulcerative colitis? a. Preventing the spread of illness to others b. Nutritional guidance and preventing constipation c. Teaching daily use of enemas • d. Coping with stress and avoiding triggers 78. Careful hand washing before and after contact can prevent the spread of which condition in day care and school settings? a. Irritable bowel syndrome b. Ulcerative colitis c. Hepatic cirrhosis • d Hepatitis A 79. Which term is used to describe a child's level of consciousness when the child can be aroused with stimulation? a. Stupor b. Confusion c. Obtundation d. Disorientation 80. Which term is used when a patient remains in a deep sleep, responsive only to vigorous and repeated stimulation? a. Coma b. Stupor c. Obtundation d. Persistent vegetative state 81. Which test is never performed on a child who is awake? a. Oculovestibular responseb. Doll’s head maneuver c. Funduscopic examination for papilledema d. Assessment of pyramidal tract lesions 82. The nurse is preparing a school-age child for a computed tomography (CT) scan to assess cerebral function. When preparing the child for the scan, which statement should the nurse include? a. “Pain medication will be given.” • b. "The scan will not hurt." c "You will be able to move once the equipment is in place." d. "Unfortunately no one can remain in the room with you during the test." 83. Which neurologic diagnostic test gives a visualized horizontal and vertical cross section of the brain at any axis? a. Nuclear brain scan b. Echoencephalography • c. Computed tomography (CT) scan d. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) 84. What is the priority nursing intervention when a child is unconscious after a fall? • a. Establish an adequate airway. b. Perform neurologic assessment. c. Monitor intercranial pressure. d. Determine whether a neck injury is present. 85. Which drug would be used to treat a child who has increased intracranial pressure (ICP) resulting from cerebral edema? • a. Mannitol b. Epinephrine hydrochloride c. Atropine sulfate d. Sodium bicarbonate 86. Which type of fracture describes traumatic separation of cranial sutures? a. Basilar b. Compound c. Diastatic d. Depressed 87. A 5-year-old sustained a concussion when falling out of a tree. In preparation for discharge, the nurse is discussing home care with the mother. Which statement made by the mother indicates a correct understanding of the teaching? a. "I should expect my child to have a few episodes of vomiting." b. 'If l notice sleep disturbances, I should contact the physician immediately." • c. "I should expect my child to have some difficulty concentrating for a while." d. "If I notice diplopia, I will have my child rest for 1 hour." 88. What action may be beneficial in reducing the risk of Reve's syndrome? a. Immunization against the disease b. Medical attention for all head injuries c. Prompt treatment of bacterial meningitis • d Avoidance of aspirin and ibuprofen for children with varicella or those suspected of having influenza89. What is the initial clinical manifestation of generalized seizures? a. Being confused b. Peeling frightened c. Losing consciousness d. Seeing flashing lights 90. Which type of seizure may be difficult to detect? • a. Absence b. Generalized c. Simple partial d. Complex partial 91. Congenital disorders refer to conditions that are present at birth. These disorders may be inherited and caused by environmental factors or maternal malnutrition. Toxic exposures have the greatest effect on development between 15 and 60 days of gestation. For the nurse to be able to conduct a complete assessment of the newly pregnant patient, she should understand the significance of exposure to known human teratogens. These include (Select all that apply.) a. Infections. b. radiation c. maternal conditions. d. drugs e. chemicals 92. Transvaginal ultrasonography is often performed during the first trimester. While preparing your 6-week gestation patient for this procedure, she expresses concerns over the necessity for this test. The nurse should explain that this diagnostic test may be indicated for a number of situations. (Select all that apply.) • a. Establish gestational age b. Obesity • c Fetal abnormalities d. Amniotic fluid volume e. Ectopic pregnancy 93. Signs that precede labor include (Select all that apply.) a. lightening b. exhaustion. c. bloody show d. rupture of membranes e. decreased fetal movement 94. Changes in blood volume after childbirth depend on several factors such as blood loss during childbirth and the amount of extravascular water (physiologic edema) mobilized and excreted. A after birth nurse anticipates blood loss of (select all that apply.) a. 100 mL b. 250 mL or less c. 300 to 500 mL d. 500 to 1000 ml e. 1500 mL or greater 95. The nurse is preparing for the admission of an infant who will have several procedures performed. In which situation is informed consent required? (Select all that apply.) a. Catheterized urine collectionb. Intravenous (IV) line insertion c. Oxygen administration d. Lumbar puncture e. Bone marrow aspiration 96. The nurse is caring for a 10-month-old infant diagnosed with respiratory syncytial virus (RSV) bronchiolitis. Which interventions should be included in the child's care? (Select all that apply.) a. Administer antibiotics. b. Administer cough syrup c. Encourage infant to drink 8 ounces of formula every 4 hours d. Institute cluster care to encourage adequate rest. e. Place on noninvasive oxygen monitoring 97. The nurse is preparing to care for an infant returning from pyloromyotomy surgery. Which prescribed orders should the nurse anticipate implementing? (select on that apply) a. Nothing by mouth for 24 hours b. Administration of analgesics for pain c. Ice bag to the incisional area d. Intravenous (IV) fluids continued until tolerating fluids by mouth e. Clear liquids as the first feeding 98. Clinical manifestations of increased intracranial pressure (ICP) in infants are (Select all that apply.) a. low-pitched cry b. sunken fontanel. c. drowsiness d. Irritability e. distended scalp veins. f. increased blood pressure 99. A nurse should expect which cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) laboratory results on a child diagnosed with bacterial meningitis? (Select all that apply.) a. Elevated white blood cell (WBC) count b. Decreased protein c. Decreased glucose d. Cloudy in color e. Increase in red blood cells (RBCS) 100. The nurse is monitoring an infant for signs of increased intracranial pressure (ICP). Which are late signs of increased ICP in an infant? (Select all thot apply.) a. Tachycardia b. Alteration in pupil size and reactivity c. Increased motor response d Extension or flexion posturing e. Cheyne-Strokes respirations