West Coast EMT Block 2 Comprehensive Practice Examination 2025 | 100 Verified
Questions with Correct Answers and Detailed Rationales | Latest Updated
Emergency Medical Technician (EMT) Study and Certification Review – West Coast
EMT Training Program
West Coast EMT Block #2 Exam
A 60-year-old man is found to be unresponsive, pulseless, and apneic. You should:
Answer: B. Begin CPR until an AED is available.
Rationale: Immediate CPR maintains blood flow to vital organs until defibrillation can be
performed — the key to improving survival in cardiac arrest.
2. Basic life support (BLS) is defined as:
Answer: B. Noninvasive emergency care that is used to treat conditions such as airway
obstruction, respiratory arrest, and cardiac arrest.
Rationale: BLS includes life-saving interventions like CPR, rescue breathing, and airway
clearance — all noninvasive procedures.
3. Between each chest compression, you should __________.
Answer: B. Allow full chest recoil.
Rationale: Full recoil lets the heart refill with blood, which is essential for effective circulation
during compressions.
4. Complications associated with chest compressions include all of the following, EXCEPT:
Answer: B. Gastric distention.
Rationale: Gastric distention results from improper ventilation, not compressions; fractures and
organ injury are compression-related risks.
5. CPR is in progress on a pregnant woman. Shortly after manually displacing her uterus to the
left, return of spontaneous circulation occurs. Which of the following would MOST likely
explain this?
Answer: D. Pressure was relieved from her aorta and vena cava, which improved chest
compression effectiveness.
Rationale: Left uterine displacement reduces compression of major vessels, restoring venous
return and cardiac output.
,6. CPR retraining is the MOST effective when it:
Answer: C. Involves hands-on practice.
Rationale: Active participation reinforces muscle memory and improves skill retention
compared to passive learning.
7. CPR should be initiated when:
Answer: D. A valid living will is unavailable.
Rationale: Unless a legal do-not-resuscitate (DNR) order or living will exists, resuscitation
should begin immediately.
8. CPR will NOT be effective if the patient is:
Answer: B. Prone.
Rationale: CPR requires firm compressions on the chest — impossible to perform effectively on
a prone patient.
9. Gastric distention will MOST likely occur:
Answer: E. If you ventilate a patient too quickly.
Rationale: Rapid or forceful ventilation causes air to enter the stomach instead of the lungs,
leading to distention and risk of regurgitation.
10. If an object is visible in the unconscious patient's airway, you should __________.
Answer: C. Remove it.
Rationale: Visible obstructions should be removed carefully to restore airflow — blind sweeps
risk pushing it deeper.
11. In most cases, cardiopulmonary arrest in infants and children is caused by:
Answer: C. Respiratory arrest.
Rationale: Unlike adults, pediatric arrests are usually secondary to respiratory failure or airway
obstruction.
12. Several attempts to adequately open a trauma patient's airway with the jaw-thrust maneuver
have been unsuccessful. You should:
Answer: D. Carefully perform the head tilt–chin lift maneuver.
,Rationale: If the airway remains obstructed, use the head tilt–chin lift to open it — even with
suspected trauma — as oxygenation takes priority.
13. Signs of a sudden severe upper airway obstruction include all of the following, EXCEPT:
Answer: D. Forceful coughing.
Rationale: Forceful coughing indicates partial obstruction; complete obstruction prevents sound
or speech.
14. The impedance threshold device (ITD) may improve circulation during active compression–
decompression CPR by:
Answer: A. Limiting the amount of air that enters the lungs during the recoil phase
between chest compressions, which results in negative intrathoracic pressure and improved
cardiac filling.
Rationale: The ITD enhances venous return by creating negative pressure, improving perfusion
during CPR.
15. What is the correct compression-to-ventilation ratio for adult CPR?
Answer: A. 30:2
Rationale: The 30:2 ratio ensures adequate compressions per minute with periodic ventilation,
optimizing perfusion and oxygen delivery.
When performing CPR on a child, you should compress the chest:
Select one:
A. to a depth of 1 to 2 inches.
B. with one or two hands.
C. until a radial pulse is felt.
D. 80 to 100 times per minute.
B. with one or two hands.
While rescuer one is finishing his or her fifth cycle of 30 compressions, rescuer two should:
Select one:
A. give two breaths and prepare to start compressions.
B. suction the patient's mouth and give two more ventilations.
C. assess for a carotid pulse for 15 seconds.
D. move to the opposite side of the patient's chest.
D. move to the opposite side of the patient's chest.
, Without practice, your CPR skills will __________.
Select one:
A. become part of your muscle memory
B. improve over time
C. come back automatically when needed
D. deteriorate over time
D. deteriorate over time
Your conscious patient has a mild partial airway obstruction. You should:
Select one:
A. place the patient supine.
B. encourage the patient to cough.
C. administer back blows.
D. perform abdominal thrusts.
B. encourage the patient to cough.
Your partner is performing one-rescuer CPR on a middle-aged woman in cardiac arrest. When you
apply the AED pads, you note that she has a medication patch over the same area where one of the
AED pads will be placed. You should:
Select one:
A. move the patch to another area of the patient's chest and then properly apply the AED pads.
B. apply the AED pad at least 1 inch away from the medication patch to avoid skin burns.
C. continue CPR until you can determine the name of the medication contained in the patch.
D. remove the medication patch, wipe away any medication residue, and apply the AED pads.
D. remove the medication patch, wipe away any medication residue, and apply the AED pads.
Ten days after treating a 34-year-old patient with tuberculosis, you are given a tuberculin skin test,
which yields a positive result. This MOST likely indicates that:
Select one:
A. the disease is dormant in your body, but will probably never cause symptoms.
B. you are actively infected with tuberculosis and should be treated immediately.
C. you were exposed to another infected person prior to treating the 34-year-old patient.
D. you contracted the disease by casual contact instead of exposure to secretions.
C. you were exposed to another infected person prior to treating the 34-year-old patient.
After sizing up the scene of a patient with a possible infectious disease, your next priority should be
to:
Select one:
A. contact medical control.
B. notify law enforcement.
C. quickly access the patient.
D. take standard precautions.
D. take standard precautions.
Questions with Correct Answers and Detailed Rationales | Latest Updated
Emergency Medical Technician (EMT) Study and Certification Review – West Coast
EMT Training Program
West Coast EMT Block #2 Exam
A 60-year-old man is found to be unresponsive, pulseless, and apneic. You should:
Answer: B. Begin CPR until an AED is available.
Rationale: Immediate CPR maintains blood flow to vital organs until defibrillation can be
performed — the key to improving survival in cardiac arrest.
2. Basic life support (BLS) is defined as:
Answer: B. Noninvasive emergency care that is used to treat conditions such as airway
obstruction, respiratory arrest, and cardiac arrest.
Rationale: BLS includes life-saving interventions like CPR, rescue breathing, and airway
clearance — all noninvasive procedures.
3. Between each chest compression, you should __________.
Answer: B. Allow full chest recoil.
Rationale: Full recoil lets the heart refill with blood, which is essential for effective circulation
during compressions.
4. Complications associated with chest compressions include all of the following, EXCEPT:
Answer: B. Gastric distention.
Rationale: Gastric distention results from improper ventilation, not compressions; fractures and
organ injury are compression-related risks.
5. CPR is in progress on a pregnant woman. Shortly after manually displacing her uterus to the
left, return of spontaneous circulation occurs. Which of the following would MOST likely
explain this?
Answer: D. Pressure was relieved from her aorta and vena cava, which improved chest
compression effectiveness.
Rationale: Left uterine displacement reduces compression of major vessels, restoring venous
return and cardiac output.
,6. CPR retraining is the MOST effective when it:
Answer: C. Involves hands-on practice.
Rationale: Active participation reinforces muscle memory and improves skill retention
compared to passive learning.
7. CPR should be initiated when:
Answer: D. A valid living will is unavailable.
Rationale: Unless a legal do-not-resuscitate (DNR) order or living will exists, resuscitation
should begin immediately.
8. CPR will NOT be effective if the patient is:
Answer: B. Prone.
Rationale: CPR requires firm compressions on the chest — impossible to perform effectively on
a prone patient.
9. Gastric distention will MOST likely occur:
Answer: E. If you ventilate a patient too quickly.
Rationale: Rapid or forceful ventilation causes air to enter the stomach instead of the lungs,
leading to distention and risk of regurgitation.
10. If an object is visible in the unconscious patient's airway, you should __________.
Answer: C. Remove it.
Rationale: Visible obstructions should be removed carefully to restore airflow — blind sweeps
risk pushing it deeper.
11. In most cases, cardiopulmonary arrest in infants and children is caused by:
Answer: C. Respiratory arrest.
Rationale: Unlike adults, pediatric arrests are usually secondary to respiratory failure or airway
obstruction.
12. Several attempts to adequately open a trauma patient's airway with the jaw-thrust maneuver
have been unsuccessful. You should:
Answer: D. Carefully perform the head tilt–chin lift maneuver.
,Rationale: If the airway remains obstructed, use the head tilt–chin lift to open it — even with
suspected trauma — as oxygenation takes priority.
13. Signs of a sudden severe upper airway obstruction include all of the following, EXCEPT:
Answer: D. Forceful coughing.
Rationale: Forceful coughing indicates partial obstruction; complete obstruction prevents sound
or speech.
14. The impedance threshold device (ITD) may improve circulation during active compression–
decompression CPR by:
Answer: A. Limiting the amount of air that enters the lungs during the recoil phase
between chest compressions, which results in negative intrathoracic pressure and improved
cardiac filling.
Rationale: The ITD enhances venous return by creating negative pressure, improving perfusion
during CPR.
15. What is the correct compression-to-ventilation ratio for adult CPR?
Answer: A. 30:2
Rationale: The 30:2 ratio ensures adequate compressions per minute with periodic ventilation,
optimizing perfusion and oxygen delivery.
When performing CPR on a child, you should compress the chest:
Select one:
A. to a depth of 1 to 2 inches.
B. with one or two hands.
C. until a radial pulse is felt.
D. 80 to 100 times per minute.
B. with one or two hands.
While rescuer one is finishing his or her fifth cycle of 30 compressions, rescuer two should:
Select one:
A. give two breaths and prepare to start compressions.
B. suction the patient's mouth and give two more ventilations.
C. assess for a carotid pulse for 15 seconds.
D. move to the opposite side of the patient's chest.
D. move to the opposite side of the patient's chest.
, Without practice, your CPR skills will __________.
Select one:
A. become part of your muscle memory
B. improve over time
C. come back automatically when needed
D. deteriorate over time
D. deteriorate over time
Your conscious patient has a mild partial airway obstruction. You should:
Select one:
A. place the patient supine.
B. encourage the patient to cough.
C. administer back blows.
D. perform abdominal thrusts.
B. encourage the patient to cough.
Your partner is performing one-rescuer CPR on a middle-aged woman in cardiac arrest. When you
apply the AED pads, you note that she has a medication patch over the same area where one of the
AED pads will be placed. You should:
Select one:
A. move the patch to another area of the patient's chest and then properly apply the AED pads.
B. apply the AED pad at least 1 inch away from the medication patch to avoid skin burns.
C. continue CPR until you can determine the name of the medication contained in the patch.
D. remove the medication patch, wipe away any medication residue, and apply the AED pads.
D. remove the medication patch, wipe away any medication residue, and apply the AED pads.
Ten days after treating a 34-year-old patient with tuberculosis, you are given a tuberculin skin test,
which yields a positive result. This MOST likely indicates that:
Select one:
A. the disease is dormant in your body, but will probably never cause symptoms.
B. you are actively infected with tuberculosis and should be treated immediately.
C. you were exposed to another infected person prior to treating the 34-year-old patient.
D. you contracted the disease by casual contact instead of exposure to secretions.
C. you were exposed to another infected person prior to treating the 34-year-old patient.
After sizing up the scene of a patient with a possible infectious disease, your next priority should be
to:
Select one:
A. contact medical control.
B. notify law enforcement.
C. quickly access the patient.
D. take standard precautions.
D. take standard precautions.
