PMHNP Psychopharm Exam 22 2024
A nurse is caring for a patient who has an infection. The healthcare provider has ordered an
antimicrobial drug for the patient. The nurse understands that which of the following is the
most important characteristic of this drug?
A. That the drug will kill the microorganism
B. That the drug will be administered orally
C. That the drug does not have any harmful effects
D. That the drug does not interact with other drugs - Answer: A
That the drug will kill the microorganism
Rationale: The three most important characteristics that any drug can have are effectiveness,
safety, and selectivity. Effectiveness is the most important property that a drug can have
A patient who was prescribed an oral medication to be taken four times per day returns to the
clinic for a follow-up visit. The patient tells the nurse that he forgets to take two or three
doses of the medication each day. What is the most appropriate action that the nurse can
take?
A. Arranging for the patient to have a home healthcare nurse
B. Re-educating the patient about the medication and how it should be taken
C. Determining whether the patient is experiencing any adverse effects
D. Telling the patient to set an alarm as a reminder to take the drug - Answer: B
Re-educating the patient about the medication and how it should be taken
Rationale: To help minimize errors caused by poor adherence, patients should receive
thorough instruction regarding their medications and how to take them.
A nurse is administering a drug that is categorized as Schedule IV. The nurse understands
that this means the drug:
A. Has acceptable medical applications with low potential for abuse.
B. Is a controlled substance with no accepted medical use.
C. Is dangerous to administer to pregnant or breast-feeding patients.
D. Has the potential for serious and life-threatening adverse effects. - Answer: A
Has acceptable medical applications with low potential for abuse.
Rationale: Categories from Schedules I to V are used for drugs that are considered to have the
potential for abuse. The drugs with the highest potential for abuse are Schedule I drugs, and
those with the lowest potential for abuse are Schedule V drugs.
The nurse is preparing a list of medications to give to a patient who is being discharged from
the hospital. The nurse should use which drug name for each medication?
A. Chemical name
B. Generic name
C. Trade name
D. Classification name - Answer: B
,Generic name
Rationale: Each drug has only one generic name; the generic name is less complex than the
chemical name, but it is more complex than the trade name. Using the generic name is the
safest way to refer to a medication. The chemical name can be long and complex, and it may
be inappropriate for everyday use. In addition, multiple trade names can be used for the same
medication.
A nurse is preparing to administer epinephrine to a patient who is having a severe allergic
reaction. Which route of administration should the nurse use to provide the fastest and most
complete absorption of epinephrine?
A. Intravenous
B. Intramuscular
C. Subcutaneous
D. Oral - Answer: A
Intravenous
Rationale: Intravenous administration results in the fastest and most complete absorption of a
drug.
When preparing to administer a sustained-release capsule to a patient, the nurse understands
that which of the following is true for sustained-release capsules?
A. They are usually most costly than pills.
B. They are rapidly absorbed.
C. They need to be crushed for appropriate absorption to take place.
D. They need to be taken at regular intervals throughout the day. - Answer: A
They are usually most costly than pills.
Rationale: A capsule may cost more than a pill. Sustained-release formulations are capsules
filled with tiny spheres that contain the actual drug; the individual spheres have coatings that
dissolve at variable rates. Because some spheres dissolve more slowly than others, drug is
released steadily throughout the day. These capsules should not be crushed. The primary
advantage of sustained-release preparations is that they permit a reduction in the number of
daily doses. These formulations have the additional advantage of producing relatively steady
drug levels over an extended time (much like giving a drug by infusion). The major
disadvantages of sustained-release formulations are their high cost and their potential for
variable absorption.
The nurse identifies which patient as being at highest risk for slow drug metabolism?
A. A 2-year-old boy who is prescribed an oral antibiotic
B. A 14-year-old girl who takes four prescription drugs
C. A 56-year-old man who has chronic hepatic disease
D. A 76-year-old woman who has an elevated temperature - Answer: C
A 56-year-old man who has chronic hepatic disease
Rationale: Drug metabolism, which is also known as biotransformation, is the enzymatic
alteration of drug structure. Most drug metabolism takes place in the liver.
, When teaching a patient who has a gastric ulcer about cimetidine (a histamine H2 antagonist)
therapy, the nurse should include which information about antagonists?
A. An antagonist causes a chemical reaction in the stomach.
B. An antagonist activates receptors in the stomach lining.
C. An antagonist prevents receptor activation in the stomach.
D. An antagonist improves receptor sensitivity in the stomach. - Answer: C
An antagonist prevents receptor activation in the stomach.
Rationale: Antagonists produce their effects by preventing receptor activation by endogenous
regulatory molecules and drugs. Antagonists have virtually no effects of their own on
receptor function.
Which statement about drug agonists does the nurse identify as being true?
A. An agonist makes physiologic processes go faster.
B. An agonist exerts effects by causing receptor activation.
C. An agonist has moderate intrinsic activity.
D. An agonist is a dynamic component. - Answer: B
An agonist exerts effects by causing receptor activation.
Rationale: It is important to note that agonists do not necessarily make physiologic processes
go faster; receptor activation by these compounds can also make a process go slower.
Receptors are dynamic components of the cell. A partial agonist is an agonist that has
moderate intrinsic activity.
Which patient does the nurse identify as being at highest risk for the development of an
adverse drug reaction?
A. A 1-month-old patient whose mother has allergies to penicillin, aspirin, and codeine
B. A 16-year-old patient with multiple traumatic injuries who is
taking morphine and an antibiotic
C. A 54-year-old patient with multiple sclerosis who has been enrolled in a clinical trial of a
new drug
D. An 84-year-old patient with diabetes, heart failure, and hypertension who takes seven
prescription medications each day - Answer: D
An 84-year-old patient with diabetes, heart failure, and hypertension who takes seven
prescription medications each day
Rationale: Adverse events are more common in older adults and the very young, in patients
with severe illness, and in those who are taking multiple drugs.
A patient is prescribed a medication that is potentially hepatotoxic. Before administering the
medication, it is most important for the nurse to assess what?
A. Blood urea nitrogen and serum creatinine
B. Aspartate aminotransferase and alanine aminotransferase
C. Prolonged QT interval on the electrocardiogram
A nurse is caring for a patient who has an infection. The healthcare provider has ordered an
antimicrobial drug for the patient. The nurse understands that which of the following is the
most important characteristic of this drug?
A. That the drug will kill the microorganism
B. That the drug will be administered orally
C. That the drug does not have any harmful effects
D. That the drug does not interact with other drugs - Answer: A
That the drug will kill the microorganism
Rationale: The three most important characteristics that any drug can have are effectiveness,
safety, and selectivity. Effectiveness is the most important property that a drug can have
A patient who was prescribed an oral medication to be taken four times per day returns to the
clinic for a follow-up visit. The patient tells the nurse that he forgets to take two or three
doses of the medication each day. What is the most appropriate action that the nurse can
take?
A. Arranging for the patient to have a home healthcare nurse
B. Re-educating the patient about the medication and how it should be taken
C. Determining whether the patient is experiencing any adverse effects
D. Telling the patient to set an alarm as a reminder to take the drug - Answer: B
Re-educating the patient about the medication and how it should be taken
Rationale: To help minimize errors caused by poor adherence, patients should receive
thorough instruction regarding their medications and how to take them.
A nurse is administering a drug that is categorized as Schedule IV. The nurse understands
that this means the drug:
A. Has acceptable medical applications with low potential for abuse.
B. Is a controlled substance with no accepted medical use.
C. Is dangerous to administer to pregnant or breast-feeding patients.
D. Has the potential for serious and life-threatening adverse effects. - Answer: A
Has acceptable medical applications with low potential for abuse.
Rationale: Categories from Schedules I to V are used for drugs that are considered to have the
potential for abuse. The drugs with the highest potential for abuse are Schedule I drugs, and
those with the lowest potential for abuse are Schedule V drugs.
The nurse is preparing a list of medications to give to a patient who is being discharged from
the hospital. The nurse should use which drug name for each medication?
A. Chemical name
B. Generic name
C. Trade name
D. Classification name - Answer: B
,Generic name
Rationale: Each drug has only one generic name; the generic name is less complex than the
chemical name, but it is more complex than the trade name. Using the generic name is the
safest way to refer to a medication. The chemical name can be long and complex, and it may
be inappropriate for everyday use. In addition, multiple trade names can be used for the same
medication.
A nurse is preparing to administer epinephrine to a patient who is having a severe allergic
reaction. Which route of administration should the nurse use to provide the fastest and most
complete absorption of epinephrine?
A. Intravenous
B. Intramuscular
C. Subcutaneous
D. Oral - Answer: A
Intravenous
Rationale: Intravenous administration results in the fastest and most complete absorption of a
drug.
When preparing to administer a sustained-release capsule to a patient, the nurse understands
that which of the following is true for sustained-release capsules?
A. They are usually most costly than pills.
B. They are rapidly absorbed.
C. They need to be crushed for appropriate absorption to take place.
D. They need to be taken at regular intervals throughout the day. - Answer: A
They are usually most costly than pills.
Rationale: A capsule may cost more than a pill. Sustained-release formulations are capsules
filled with tiny spheres that contain the actual drug; the individual spheres have coatings that
dissolve at variable rates. Because some spheres dissolve more slowly than others, drug is
released steadily throughout the day. These capsules should not be crushed. The primary
advantage of sustained-release preparations is that they permit a reduction in the number of
daily doses. These formulations have the additional advantage of producing relatively steady
drug levels over an extended time (much like giving a drug by infusion). The major
disadvantages of sustained-release formulations are their high cost and their potential for
variable absorption.
The nurse identifies which patient as being at highest risk for slow drug metabolism?
A. A 2-year-old boy who is prescribed an oral antibiotic
B. A 14-year-old girl who takes four prescription drugs
C. A 56-year-old man who has chronic hepatic disease
D. A 76-year-old woman who has an elevated temperature - Answer: C
A 56-year-old man who has chronic hepatic disease
Rationale: Drug metabolism, which is also known as biotransformation, is the enzymatic
alteration of drug structure. Most drug metabolism takes place in the liver.
, When teaching a patient who has a gastric ulcer about cimetidine (a histamine H2 antagonist)
therapy, the nurse should include which information about antagonists?
A. An antagonist causes a chemical reaction in the stomach.
B. An antagonist activates receptors in the stomach lining.
C. An antagonist prevents receptor activation in the stomach.
D. An antagonist improves receptor sensitivity in the stomach. - Answer: C
An antagonist prevents receptor activation in the stomach.
Rationale: Antagonists produce their effects by preventing receptor activation by endogenous
regulatory molecules and drugs. Antagonists have virtually no effects of their own on
receptor function.
Which statement about drug agonists does the nurse identify as being true?
A. An agonist makes physiologic processes go faster.
B. An agonist exerts effects by causing receptor activation.
C. An agonist has moderate intrinsic activity.
D. An agonist is a dynamic component. - Answer: B
An agonist exerts effects by causing receptor activation.
Rationale: It is important to note that agonists do not necessarily make physiologic processes
go faster; receptor activation by these compounds can also make a process go slower.
Receptors are dynamic components of the cell. A partial agonist is an agonist that has
moderate intrinsic activity.
Which patient does the nurse identify as being at highest risk for the development of an
adverse drug reaction?
A. A 1-month-old patient whose mother has allergies to penicillin, aspirin, and codeine
B. A 16-year-old patient with multiple traumatic injuries who is
taking morphine and an antibiotic
C. A 54-year-old patient with multiple sclerosis who has been enrolled in a clinical trial of a
new drug
D. An 84-year-old patient with diabetes, heart failure, and hypertension who takes seven
prescription medications each day - Answer: D
An 84-year-old patient with diabetes, heart failure, and hypertension who takes seven
prescription medications each day
Rationale: Adverse events are more common in older adults and the very young, in patients
with severe illness, and in those who are taking multiple drugs.
A patient is prescribed a medication that is potentially hepatotoxic. Before administering the
medication, it is most important for the nurse to assess what?
A. Blood urea nitrogen and serum creatinine
B. Aspartate aminotransferase and alanine aminotransferase
C. Prolonged QT interval on the electrocardiogram
