NSG 527 / NSG527 MIDTERM EXAM (LATEST 2026 ): RATED A+
QUESTIONS AND VERIFIED ANSWERS, GUARANTEED PASS
1.
A nurse is caring for a client prescribed furosemide for heart failure.
Which electrolyte imbalance is the nurse most concerned about monitoring?
a) Hyperkalemia
b) Hypokalemia
c) Hypercalcemia
d) Hyponatremia
Correct Answer: b) Hypokalemia
Rationale: Loop diuretics increase potassium excretion, leading to hypokalemia,
which can cause arrhythmias and muscle weakness.
2.
A client receiving digoxin reports nausea, vomiting, and blurred vision.
What should the nurse do first?
a) Hold the dose and notify the provider
b) Give an antiemetic for nausea
c) Administer with food to reduce side effects
d) Continue the medication as prescribed
Correct Answer: a) Hold the dose and notify the provider
Rationale: These are classic signs of digoxin toxicity. The nurse must stop the
drug and check digoxin levels immediately.
,3.
A patient is prescribed warfarin for atrial fibrillation.
Which laboratory test should the nurse prioritize monitoring?
a) aPTT
b) INR
c) Platelet count
d) Hemoglobin
Correct Answer: b) INR
Rationale: Warfarin’s therapeutic effect is measured by the INR, with a goal
usually between 2–3 for anticoagulation.
4.
The nurse is reviewing medications for a patient with chest pain.
Which drug should never be given together with sildenafil?
a) Aspirin
b) Nitroglycerin
c) Lisinopril
d) Acetaminophen
Correct Answer: b) Nitroglycerin
Rationale: Combining sildenafil and nitrates can cause life-threatening
hypotension.
5.
A client receives insulin lispro at 0730.
At what time should breakfast be available?
a) 0800
b) 1200
c) 1000
d) 1400
,Correct Answer: a) 0800
Rationale: Lispro is a rapid-acting insulin with an onset of 15–30 minutes, so food
should be ready quickly to avoid hypoglycemia.
6.
A client taking lithium for bipolar disorder shows hand tremors and confusion.
What do these findings most likely indicate?
a) Expected side effects
b) Lithium toxicity
c) Dehydration only
d) Withdrawal symptoms
Correct Answer: b) Lithium toxicity
Rationale: Neurologic changes, tremors, and confusion indicate lithium levels are
too high and require intervention.
7.
The nurse prepares emergency care for a patient with anaphylaxis.
Which medication is the first priority?
a) Diphenhydramine
b) Epinephrine
c) Albuterol
d) Prednisone
Correct Answer: b) Epinephrine
Rationale: Epinephrine is the drug of choice for anaphylaxis because it rapidly
reverses airway obstruction and hypotension.
8.
A client prescribed enalapril reports a persistent dry cough.
What is the most likely cause of this symptom?
, a) Respiratory infection
b) Allergic reaction
c) ACE inhibitor side effect
d) Heart failure progression
Correct Answer: c) ACE inhibitor side effect
Rationale: ACE inhibitors increase bradykinin, which often causes a dry cough.
9.
A nurse administers vancomycin IV for a client with MRSA.
Which complication should the nurse closely monitor for?
a) Ototoxicity
b) Hypoglycemia
c) Hypertension
d) Constipation
Correct Answer: a) Ototoxicity
Rationale: Vancomycin may cause hearing loss and nephrotoxicity; both should be
monitored.
10.
A client receiving warfarin has an INR of 5.2 and signs of bleeding.
Which antidote should the nurse prepare to administer?
a) Vitamin D
b) Vitamin K
c) Protamine sulfate
d) Activated charcoal
Correct Answer: b) Vitamin K
Rationale: Vitamin K reverses the effects of warfarin and is used for high INR
with bleeding.
QUESTIONS AND VERIFIED ANSWERS, GUARANTEED PASS
1.
A nurse is caring for a client prescribed furosemide for heart failure.
Which electrolyte imbalance is the nurse most concerned about monitoring?
a) Hyperkalemia
b) Hypokalemia
c) Hypercalcemia
d) Hyponatremia
Correct Answer: b) Hypokalemia
Rationale: Loop diuretics increase potassium excretion, leading to hypokalemia,
which can cause arrhythmias and muscle weakness.
2.
A client receiving digoxin reports nausea, vomiting, and blurred vision.
What should the nurse do first?
a) Hold the dose and notify the provider
b) Give an antiemetic for nausea
c) Administer with food to reduce side effects
d) Continue the medication as prescribed
Correct Answer: a) Hold the dose and notify the provider
Rationale: These are classic signs of digoxin toxicity. The nurse must stop the
drug and check digoxin levels immediately.
,3.
A patient is prescribed warfarin for atrial fibrillation.
Which laboratory test should the nurse prioritize monitoring?
a) aPTT
b) INR
c) Platelet count
d) Hemoglobin
Correct Answer: b) INR
Rationale: Warfarin’s therapeutic effect is measured by the INR, with a goal
usually between 2–3 for anticoagulation.
4.
The nurse is reviewing medications for a patient with chest pain.
Which drug should never be given together with sildenafil?
a) Aspirin
b) Nitroglycerin
c) Lisinopril
d) Acetaminophen
Correct Answer: b) Nitroglycerin
Rationale: Combining sildenafil and nitrates can cause life-threatening
hypotension.
5.
A client receives insulin lispro at 0730.
At what time should breakfast be available?
a) 0800
b) 1200
c) 1000
d) 1400
,Correct Answer: a) 0800
Rationale: Lispro is a rapid-acting insulin with an onset of 15–30 minutes, so food
should be ready quickly to avoid hypoglycemia.
6.
A client taking lithium for bipolar disorder shows hand tremors and confusion.
What do these findings most likely indicate?
a) Expected side effects
b) Lithium toxicity
c) Dehydration only
d) Withdrawal symptoms
Correct Answer: b) Lithium toxicity
Rationale: Neurologic changes, tremors, and confusion indicate lithium levels are
too high and require intervention.
7.
The nurse prepares emergency care for a patient with anaphylaxis.
Which medication is the first priority?
a) Diphenhydramine
b) Epinephrine
c) Albuterol
d) Prednisone
Correct Answer: b) Epinephrine
Rationale: Epinephrine is the drug of choice for anaphylaxis because it rapidly
reverses airway obstruction and hypotension.
8.
A client prescribed enalapril reports a persistent dry cough.
What is the most likely cause of this symptom?
, a) Respiratory infection
b) Allergic reaction
c) ACE inhibitor side effect
d) Heart failure progression
Correct Answer: c) ACE inhibitor side effect
Rationale: ACE inhibitors increase bradykinin, which often causes a dry cough.
9.
A nurse administers vancomycin IV for a client with MRSA.
Which complication should the nurse closely monitor for?
a) Ototoxicity
b) Hypoglycemia
c) Hypertension
d) Constipation
Correct Answer: a) Ototoxicity
Rationale: Vancomycin may cause hearing loss and nephrotoxicity; both should be
monitored.
10.
A client receiving warfarin has an INR of 5.2 and signs of bleeding.
Which antidote should the nurse prepare to administer?
a) Vitamin D
b) Vitamin K
c) Protamine sulfate
d) Activated charcoal
Correct Answer: b) Vitamin K
Rationale: Vitamin K reverses the effects of warfarin and is used for high INR
with bleeding.
