Relias RN Pharmacology Test B Relias Exam
Questions And Correct Answers {Verified
Answers} Plus Rationales 2025/2026 Q&A /
Instant Download Pdf
1. Which medication is a beta-blocker used for hypertension?
A) Lisinopril
B) Metoprolol
C) Amlodipine
D) Losartan
Rationale: Metoprolol reduces heart rate and cardiac output by blocking beta-1
adrenergic receptors.
2. Which electrolyte imbalance is a potential adverse effect of spironolactone?
A) Hypokalemia
B) Hyperkalemia
C) Hyponatremia
D) Hypocalcemia
Rationale: Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, increasing risk for
hyperkalemia.
3. Which lab value is monitored for a patient taking heparin?
A) INR
B) aPTT
C) Platelet count only
D) Creatinine
Rationale: aPTT evaluates heparin's anticoagulation effect and dosage adjustments.
4. Which symptom requires immediate intervention in a patient receiving an ACE
inhibitor?
A) Cough
B) Swelling of lips and face
C) Dizziness
D) Fatigue
Rationale: Angioedema is a rare but life-threatening reaction to ACE inhibitors.
5. Which insulin has the fastest onset of action?
A) Regular insulin
, B) NPH
C) Insulin lispro
D) Insulin detemir
Rationale: Lispro is rapid-acting, with onset in about 15 minutes.
6. What is a common side effect of opioid analgesics like morphine?
A) Diarrhea
B) Constipation
C) Hypertension
D) Increased respiratory rate
Rationale: Opioids slow gastrointestinal motility, causing constipation.
7. Which antidote is used for opioid overdose?
A) Flumazenil
B) Naloxone
C) Atropine
D) Protamine sulfate
Rationale: Naloxone blocks opioid receptors to reverse respiratory depression.
8. Which drug should be avoided in patients with a history of peptic ulcer disease?
A) Acetaminophen
B) Ibuprofen
C) Morphine
D) Loratadine
Rationale: NSAIDs like ibuprofen increase gastric irritation and bleeding risk.
9. Which is a calcium channel blocker?
A) Lisinopril
B) Metoprolol
C) Amlodipine
D) Losartan
Rationale: Amlodipine inhibits calcium entry into vascular smooth muscle, promoting
vasodilation.
10. Which adverse effect is associated with vancomycin infusion given too rapidly?
A) Agranulocytosis
B) Red man syndrome
C) Hypoglycemia
D) Ototoxicity only
Rationale: Rapid infusion of vancomycin can cause flushing, hypotension, and rash.
11. Which lab value should be monitored for a patient on warfarin?
A) aPTT
B) INR
, C) Serum potassium
D) Sodium levels
Rationale: INR reflects warfarin’s effect on clotting and guides dosage.
12. Which medication is a proton pump inhibitor?
A) Ranitidine
B) Omeprazole
C) Famotidine
D) Sucralfate
Rationale: Omeprazole suppresses gastric acid production by inhibiting proton
pumps.
13. Which medication is contraindicated in pregnancy due to teratogenicity?
A) Metformin
B) Isotretinoin
C) Levothyroxine
D) Amoxicillin
Rationale: Isotretinoin can cause severe birth defects and requires pregnancy
prevention.
14. Which medication is used to treat anaphylaxis?
A) Diphenhydramine
B) Epinephrine
C) Prednisone
D) Loratadine
Rationale: Epinephrine is first-line for anaphylaxis due to its vasoconstrictive and
bronchodilatory effects.
15. Which class of drug is atorvastatin?
A) Beta-blocker
B) Statin
C) ACE inhibitor
D) Diuretic
Rationale: Atorvastatin is a lipid-lowering HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor.
16. Which electrolyte imbalance may occur with furosemide therapy?
A) Hyperkalemia
B) Hypokalemia
C) Hypernatremia
D) Hypercalcemia
Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that promotes potassium excretion.
17. Which symptom may indicate digoxin toxicity?
A) Hypertension
Questions And Correct Answers {Verified
Answers} Plus Rationales 2025/2026 Q&A /
Instant Download Pdf
1. Which medication is a beta-blocker used for hypertension?
A) Lisinopril
B) Metoprolol
C) Amlodipine
D) Losartan
Rationale: Metoprolol reduces heart rate and cardiac output by blocking beta-1
adrenergic receptors.
2. Which electrolyte imbalance is a potential adverse effect of spironolactone?
A) Hypokalemia
B) Hyperkalemia
C) Hyponatremia
D) Hypocalcemia
Rationale: Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, increasing risk for
hyperkalemia.
3. Which lab value is monitored for a patient taking heparin?
A) INR
B) aPTT
C) Platelet count only
D) Creatinine
Rationale: aPTT evaluates heparin's anticoagulation effect and dosage adjustments.
4. Which symptom requires immediate intervention in a patient receiving an ACE
inhibitor?
A) Cough
B) Swelling of lips and face
C) Dizziness
D) Fatigue
Rationale: Angioedema is a rare but life-threatening reaction to ACE inhibitors.
5. Which insulin has the fastest onset of action?
A) Regular insulin
, B) NPH
C) Insulin lispro
D) Insulin detemir
Rationale: Lispro is rapid-acting, with onset in about 15 minutes.
6. What is a common side effect of opioid analgesics like morphine?
A) Diarrhea
B) Constipation
C) Hypertension
D) Increased respiratory rate
Rationale: Opioids slow gastrointestinal motility, causing constipation.
7. Which antidote is used for opioid overdose?
A) Flumazenil
B) Naloxone
C) Atropine
D) Protamine sulfate
Rationale: Naloxone blocks opioid receptors to reverse respiratory depression.
8. Which drug should be avoided in patients with a history of peptic ulcer disease?
A) Acetaminophen
B) Ibuprofen
C) Morphine
D) Loratadine
Rationale: NSAIDs like ibuprofen increase gastric irritation and bleeding risk.
9. Which is a calcium channel blocker?
A) Lisinopril
B) Metoprolol
C) Amlodipine
D) Losartan
Rationale: Amlodipine inhibits calcium entry into vascular smooth muscle, promoting
vasodilation.
10. Which adverse effect is associated with vancomycin infusion given too rapidly?
A) Agranulocytosis
B) Red man syndrome
C) Hypoglycemia
D) Ototoxicity only
Rationale: Rapid infusion of vancomycin can cause flushing, hypotension, and rash.
11. Which lab value should be monitored for a patient on warfarin?
A) aPTT
B) INR
, C) Serum potassium
D) Sodium levels
Rationale: INR reflects warfarin’s effect on clotting and guides dosage.
12. Which medication is a proton pump inhibitor?
A) Ranitidine
B) Omeprazole
C) Famotidine
D) Sucralfate
Rationale: Omeprazole suppresses gastric acid production by inhibiting proton
pumps.
13. Which medication is contraindicated in pregnancy due to teratogenicity?
A) Metformin
B) Isotretinoin
C) Levothyroxine
D) Amoxicillin
Rationale: Isotretinoin can cause severe birth defects and requires pregnancy
prevention.
14. Which medication is used to treat anaphylaxis?
A) Diphenhydramine
B) Epinephrine
C) Prednisone
D) Loratadine
Rationale: Epinephrine is first-line for anaphylaxis due to its vasoconstrictive and
bronchodilatory effects.
15. Which class of drug is atorvastatin?
A) Beta-blocker
B) Statin
C) ACE inhibitor
D) Diuretic
Rationale: Atorvastatin is a lipid-lowering HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor.
16. Which electrolyte imbalance may occur with furosemide therapy?
A) Hyperkalemia
B) Hypokalemia
C) Hypernatremia
D) Hypercalcemia
Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that promotes potassium excretion.
17. Which symptom may indicate digoxin toxicity?
A) Hypertension
