EMT BASIC PRACTICE EXAM 1 PRACTICE QUESTIONS AND CORRECT
ANSWERS| A+ GRADED |GUARANTEED PASS!!
1) EMTs should wear high-efficiency particulate air (HEPA) respirators when they are in contact with
contact with patients who have which of the following?
A. HIV (Human Immunodeficiency Virus) or AIDS (Acquired Immune Deficiency Syndrome)
B. Tuberculosis (TB)
C. Open Wounds
D. Hepatitis B - ANSWER B. Tuberculosis
2) HEPA respirators are worn when in contact with patients airborne infections such as TB.
HIV/AIDS and Hepatitis B are both blood-borne pathogens. Contaminants from open wounds
would also be blood-borne.
3) Which patient needs a detailed physical examination?
A. 48-year-old male with a history of heart disease who is complaining of chest pain
B. 35-year-old female who has been in a single car collision and who briefly lost
consciousness
C. 28-year-old full-term pregnant woman whose water has broken and who is having
contractions every 2 minutes
D. 53-year-old female with a history of smoking who is distressed and short of breath -
ANSWER B. 35-year-old female who has been in a single car collision and who briefly lost
consciousness
4) Trauma and medical patients who are unresponsive and all patients who have an altered mental
status should receive a detailed physical examination. It is easy to overlook something when the
patient is not conscious enough to tell what hurts or if the MOI and nature of illness (NOI) are
unclear.
5) Where is a detailed physical exam typically performed?
A. At the scene of the accident or injury
B. In the hospital emergency department
C. In the ambulance during transport
D. In the triage area of the trauma center - ANSWER C. In the ambulance during transport
,6) The detailed physical assessment is usually performed in the back of the ambulance during
transport; its purpose is to reveal hidden injuries that escaped the initial rapid assessment.
7) The purpose of the ongoing assessment is to re-evaluate the patient's condition and to...
A. Find any injuries missed during the initial assessment
B. Reassure the patient that you are still caring for him or her
C. Check the adequacy of each intervention performed
D. Protect the EMT against liability malpractice - ANSWER C. Check the adequacy of each
intervention performed
8) The purpose of the ongoing assessment is to check the adequacy of your initial interventions.
The detailed examination is designed to find missed injuries.
9) Immediately after delivering a shock with an AED to a patient in cardiac arrest, you should
A. Check for a pulse
B. Check for breathing and provide rescue breaths as necessary
C. Analyze with the AED and shock again if needed
D. Do CPR - ANSWER D. Do CPR
10) American Heart Association guidelines advise that even if there is an organized rhythm, a pulse
will not be palpable immediately after a shock. CPR is crucial to maintaining blood flow and
ventilation during this time.
11) You should apply an AED to
A. Adult patients experiencing chest discomfort
B. Adult patients with significant traumatic injuries
C. Adult patients without respirations or a pulse
D. Adult patients with low blood pressure - ANSWER C. Adult patients without respirations
or a pulse
12) Only those patients that are unresponsive, pulseless, and apneic should have the AED applied.
13) In which of the following situations should you call for immediate assistance?
A. You must care for two critical patients with gunshot wounds.
B. You patient is a 26-year-old female in active labor.
C. Your patient is a child with fever who has had a brief seizure.
, D. Your partner is needed to stabilize the cervical spine. - ANSWER A. You must care for two
critical patients wih gunshot wounds.
14) You could make the argument that you need additional help in the management og each of
these situations; however, the one with the most critical need is when you must care for more
than one critical patient. Both patietns with gun shot wounds need immediate attention, so you
should call for backup. In the other three situations, you should not require assistance unless
some complicating factor presents itself. Patient B may or may not require ALS assistance, but
most (over 80%) deliveries are simple and uncomplicated and can easily be managed by basic life
support (BLS) providers. PAtient C is having a febrile seizure, which i managed by stabiloizing the
ABCs and transporting. In patient D, even if your partner is required to stabilize the ncervial
spine, you should bw able to manage the patient for the time being until other assistnce arrives
to assist with packing and and moving the patient.
15) What is the structure that prevents food and liquid from entering the trachea during
swallowing?
A. Larynx
B. Cricoid Cartilage
C. Epiglottis
D. Diaphragm - ANSWER C. Epiglottis
16) The epiglottis is the leaf-shaped structure that closes off the trachea during swallowing. The
larynx is the voice box, the structure that produces speech vibrations; the cricoid cartilage forms
the lower portion of the larynx; the diaphragm is a large muscle that contracts to initiate
inhalation.
17) The air sacs in the lungs where oxygen-carbon dioxide exchange occurs are the...
A. Bronchioles
B. Bronchi
C. Epiglottis
D. Alveoli - ANSWER D. Alveoli
18) The alveoli are the numerous minute air sacs that make up the lungs; bronchioles are small
branches of the bronchi, which are the two main tubes branching from the trachea; the
epiglottis is the leaf-shaped structure that closes off the trachea during swallowing.
19) You are called to assist a 60-year-old female who complains of a severe headache. Upon entering
the home, you smell a strong odor of natural gas. What is your first reaction?
, A. Check the patient's airway, breathing, and circulation.
B. Insert a nasopharyngeal airway and assess vital signs.
C. Remove the patient from the house to your ambulance.
D. Open all windows and determine the source of the gas leak. - ANSWER C. Remove the
patient from the house to your ambulance.
20) Your first action should be to remove your crew and the patient from the possible noxious gas
and to notify the gas company of the leak. You may also be required to alert hazardous material
response team. Treatment for the patient will begin with an ABC assessment and management
of any problems you might encounter.
21) The most common electrical rhythm disturbance that results in sudden cardiac arrest.
A. Pulseless Electrical Activity
B. Ventricular Fibrillation
C. Ventricular Tachycardia
D. Asystole - ANSWER B. Ventricular Fibrillation
22) Because ventricular fibrillation is the most common cause of sudden cardiac arrest., it is critical
to apply an AED on an unconscious apneic and pulseless patient as quickly as possible. The other
rhythms can also cause a patient to be in cardiac arrest, but they do not occur as frequently as
"V-fib".
23) Which of the following is the highest priority patient?
A. 57-year-old male with chest pain and systolic blood pressure of 80.
B. 40-year-old female with moderate pain from a leg injury.
C. 75-year-old male who appears confused but responds to commands.
D. 25-year-old female in labor with contractions six minutes apart. - ANSWER A. 57-year-old
male with chest pain and systolic blood pressure of 80.
24) The patient with chest pain and systolic blood pressure less than 100 is the highest priority
patient of the four. A leg injury may be life-threatening if the femoral artery is injured, but most
often, a single extremity injury is not a threat to life. The elderly gentleman may be exhibiting his
normal mental status, or he may be having problems due to an ongoing health problem. You
need more information before you can make that determination, but he is not in any imminent
danger right now. Labor with contractions 6 minutes apart is not considered imminent delivery.
If you have any questions, however, you should continue assessing this patient as well by asking
pertinent questions and checking for crowning.
ANSWERS| A+ GRADED |GUARANTEED PASS!!
1) EMTs should wear high-efficiency particulate air (HEPA) respirators when they are in contact with
contact with patients who have which of the following?
A. HIV (Human Immunodeficiency Virus) or AIDS (Acquired Immune Deficiency Syndrome)
B. Tuberculosis (TB)
C. Open Wounds
D. Hepatitis B - ANSWER B. Tuberculosis
2) HEPA respirators are worn when in contact with patients airborne infections such as TB.
HIV/AIDS and Hepatitis B are both blood-borne pathogens. Contaminants from open wounds
would also be blood-borne.
3) Which patient needs a detailed physical examination?
A. 48-year-old male with a history of heart disease who is complaining of chest pain
B. 35-year-old female who has been in a single car collision and who briefly lost
consciousness
C. 28-year-old full-term pregnant woman whose water has broken and who is having
contractions every 2 minutes
D. 53-year-old female with a history of smoking who is distressed and short of breath -
ANSWER B. 35-year-old female who has been in a single car collision and who briefly lost
consciousness
4) Trauma and medical patients who are unresponsive and all patients who have an altered mental
status should receive a detailed physical examination. It is easy to overlook something when the
patient is not conscious enough to tell what hurts or if the MOI and nature of illness (NOI) are
unclear.
5) Where is a detailed physical exam typically performed?
A. At the scene of the accident or injury
B. In the hospital emergency department
C. In the ambulance during transport
D. In the triage area of the trauma center - ANSWER C. In the ambulance during transport
,6) The detailed physical assessment is usually performed in the back of the ambulance during
transport; its purpose is to reveal hidden injuries that escaped the initial rapid assessment.
7) The purpose of the ongoing assessment is to re-evaluate the patient's condition and to...
A. Find any injuries missed during the initial assessment
B. Reassure the patient that you are still caring for him or her
C. Check the adequacy of each intervention performed
D. Protect the EMT against liability malpractice - ANSWER C. Check the adequacy of each
intervention performed
8) The purpose of the ongoing assessment is to check the adequacy of your initial interventions.
The detailed examination is designed to find missed injuries.
9) Immediately after delivering a shock with an AED to a patient in cardiac arrest, you should
A. Check for a pulse
B. Check for breathing and provide rescue breaths as necessary
C. Analyze with the AED and shock again if needed
D. Do CPR - ANSWER D. Do CPR
10) American Heart Association guidelines advise that even if there is an organized rhythm, a pulse
will not be palpable immediately after a shock. CPR is crucial to maintaining blood flow and
ventilation during this time.
11) You should apply an AED to
A. Adult patients experiencing chest discomfort
B. Adult patients with significant traumatic injuries
C. Adult patients without respirations or a pulse
D. Adult patients with low blood pressure - ANSWER C. Adult patients without respirations
or a pulse
12) Only those patients that are unresponsive, pulseless, and apneic should have the AED applied.
13) In which of the following situations should you call for immediate assistance?
A. You must care for two critical patients with gunshot wounds.
B. You patient is a 26-year-old female in active labor.
C. Your patient is a child with fever who has had a brief seizure.
, D. Your partner is needed to stabilize the cervical spine. - ANSWER A. You must care for two
critical patients wih gunshot wounds.
14) You could make the argument that you need additional help in the management og each of
these situations; however, the one with the most critical need is when you must care for more
than one critical patient. Both patietns with gun shot wounds need immediate attention, so you
should call for backup. In the other three situations, you should not require assistance unless
some complicating factor presents itself. Patient B may or may not require ALS assistance, but
most (over 80%) deliveries are simple and uncomplicated and can easily be managed by basic life
support (BLS) providers. PAtient C is having a febrile seizure, which i managed by stabiloizing the
ABCs and transporting. In patient D, even if your partner is required to stabilize the ncervial
spine, you should bw able to manage the patient for the time being until other assistnce arrives
to assist with packing and and moving the patient.
15) What is the structure that prevents food and liquid from entering the trachea during
swallowing?
A. Larynx
B. Cricoid Cartilage
C. Epiglottis
D. Diaphragm - ANSWER C. Epiglottis
16) The epiglottis is the leaf-shaped structure that closes off the trachea during swallowing. The
larynx is the voice box, the structure that produces speech vibrations; the cricoid cartilage forms
the lower portion of the larynx; the diaphragm is a large muscle that contracts to initiate
inhalation.
17) The air sacs in the lungs where oxygen-carbon dioxide exchange occurs are the...
A. Bronchioles
B. Bronchi
C. Epiglottis
D. Alveoli - ANSWER D. Alveoli
18) The alveoli are the numerous minute air sacs that make up the lungs; bronchioles are small
branches of the bronchi, which are the two main tubes branching from the trachea; the
epiglottis is the leaf-shaped structure that closes off the trachea during swallowing.
19) You are called to assist a 60-year-old female who complains of a severe headache. Upon entering
the home, you smell a strong odor of natural gas. What is your first reaction?
, A. Check the patient's airway, breathing, and circulation.
B. Insert a nasopharyngeal airway and assess vital signs.
C. Remove the patient from the house to your ambulance.
D. Open all windows and determine the source of the gas leak. - ANSWER C. Remove the
patient from the house to your ambulance.
20) Your first action should be to remove your crew and the patient from the possible noxious gas
and to notify the gas company of the leak. You may also be required to alert hazardous material
response team. Treatment for the patient will begin with an ABC assessment and management
of any problems you might encounter.
21) The most common electrical rhythm disturbance that results in sudden cardiac arrest.
A. Pulseless Electrical Activity
B. Ventricular Fibrillation
C. Ventricular Tachycardia
D. Asystole - ANSWER B. Ventricular Fibrillation
22) Because ventricular fibrillation is the most common cause of sudden cardiac arrest., it is critical
to apply an AED on an unconscious apneic and pulseless patient as quickly as possible. The other
rhythms can also cause a patient to be in cardiac arrest, but they do not occur as frequently as
"V-fib".
23) Which of the following is the highest priority patient?
A. 57-year-old male with chest pain and systolic blood pressure of 80.
B. 40-year-old female with moderate pain from a leg injury.
C. 75-year-old male who appears confused but responds to commands.
D. 25-year-old female in labor with contractions six minutes apart. - ANSWER A. 57-year-old
male with chest pain and systolic blood pressure of 80.
24) The patient with chest pain and systolic blood pressure less than 100 is the highest priority
patient of the four. A leg injury may be life-threatening if the femoral artery is injured, but most
often, a single extremity injury is not a threat to life. The elderly gentleman may be exhibiting his
normal mental status, or he may be having problems due to an ongoing health problem. You
need more information before you can make that determination, but he is not in any imminent
danger right now. Labor with contractions 6 minutes apart is not considered imminent delivery.
If you have any questions, however, you should continue assessing this patient as well by asking
pertinent questions and checking for crowning.
