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WGU D251 ADVANCED AUDITING OBJECTIVE ASSESSMENT ACTUAL EXAM 2025/2026 COMPLETE QUESTIONS BANK AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS WITH RATIONALES || 100% GUARANTEED PASS <NEWEST VERSION>

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WGU D251 ADVANCED AUDITING OBJECTIVE ASSESSMENT ACTUAL EXAM 2025/2026 COMPLETE QUESTIONS BANK AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS WITH RATIONALES || 100% GUARANTEED PASS &lt;NEWEST VERSION&gt; 1. Misstatement - ANSWER An error, either intentional or unintentional, that exists in a transaction or financial statement account balance. 2. Alternative procedures - ANSWER Procedures used to obtain evidence about the existence and valuation of accounts receivable when a positive confirmation is not returned, including examining cash collected after the confirmation date and vouching unpaid invoices to customers' orders, sales orders, shipping documents, and sales invoices. 3. Altman Z-scores - ANSWER A series of ratios that have predictive power in indicating the likelihood of bankruptcy. This score is named for the person who first introduced the concept and associated measurement. 4. Attribute - ANSWER A characteristic of the population of interest to the auditor. 5. Attributes sampling - ANSWER A statistical sampling method used to estimate the rate of control procedure failures based on selecting one sample and performing the appropriate audit procedure. 6. Audit Risk - ANSWER The risk that the auditor expresses an inappropriate audit opinion when the financial statements are materially misstated. 7. Audit Risk Model - ANSWER Audit Risk = Inherent Risk X Control Risk X Detention Risk 8. What are critical audit matters (CAM), according to the Public Company Accounting Oversight Board (PCAOB)? - ANSWER A matter involving especially challenging, subjective, or complex auditor judgment 9. What can a user of financial statements infer from an unqualified opinion on the financial statements? - ANSWER The auditor has no reservations about the fairness of presentation. 10. What can be determined after an auditor has tested purchases and verified the beginning and ending inventory balances? - ANSWER Cost of goods sold 11. What describes the misstatements identified throughout the audit that will be considered at the end of the audit in determining whether the financial statements overall are materially correct? - ANSWER Posting materiality 12. What is a control that may be implemented to ensure all sales that occur are recorded in the general ledger? - ANSWER Using prenumbered shipping, invoice, and sales documents 13. What is a disadvantage of monetary unit sampling (MUS)? - ANSWER It is not designed to test for understatement. 14. What is a factor of nonsampling risk? - ANSWER Not carrying out the appropriate audit procedure 15. What is a formal document that conveys responsibility for shipped merchandise to the shipper? - ANSWER Bill of lading 16. What is a main provision of the Foreign Corrupt Practices Act (FCPA) of 1977 that was reemphasized and expanded as part of the Sarbanes-Oxley Act of 2002? - ANSWER Companies that have securities listed on U.S. markets must design and maintain an adequate system of internal accounting controls. 17. What is a primary reason an auditor would review a client's detailed aged accounts receivable trial balance? - ANSWER To identify amounts due from related parties 18. What is a reason that a perpetual inventory system is preferable to a periodic system if adequately controlled and maintained? - ANSWER It provides information to management where book inventory is continuously in agreement with inventory on hand with specified time periods. 19. What is a tolerable rate of deviation according to the American Institute of Certified Public Accountants (AICPA)? - ANSWER A rate of deviation set by the auditor to obtain an appropriate level of assurance that the rate set by the auditor is not exceeded by the actual rate of deviation 20. What is an auditor required to evaluate as part of the going concern assumption? - ANSWER The likelihood that the audit client will continue operating as a going concern for a reasonable amount of time after the date of the auditor's report 21. What is an example of the contents of an opinion paragraph in an unqualified audit report? - ANSWER "The financial statements referred to above present fairly . . . ." 22. What is an example of the type of analytical procedures that an auditor would use for inventory? - ANSWER Inventory turnover for the previous five years 23. What is an indicator of fraud in the acquisition and payment cycle? - ANSWER When large, manual adjustments are made to the inventory accounts 24. What is control risk in the audit risk model? - ANSWER The susceptibility of a misstatement occurring that could be material to the financial statements before considering any internal controls 25. Performance Materiality is also known as _____________. - ANSWER Tolerable Error 26. Auditor uses Performance Materiality for ____________. - ANSWER Determining significant accounts, locations, and audit procedures. 27. Performance Materiality is what percent of Planning Materiality? - ANSWER 75% 28. What happens is Performance Materiality is set too high? - ANSWER Auditor might not perform sufficient procedures to detect material misstatements. 29. What happens if Performance Materiality is set too low? - ANSWER Auditor might perform more substantive procedures than needed. 30. Overall Materiality is also known as _________. - ANSWER Planning Materiality 31. Auditors use Overall Materiality to ___________. - ANSWER Determine whether financial statements overall are materially correct. 32. What does Posting Materiality signify? - ANSWER The misstatements identified throughout the audit that will be considered at the end of the audit in determining whether the financial statements are materially correct. 33. What percentage is Posting Materiality commonly set at? - ANSWER 5% of Planning Materiality 34. What is Materiality? - ANSWER The magnitude of an omission or misstatement of accounting information that, in light of surrounding circumstances, makes it probable that the judgment of a reasonable person relying on the information would have been changed or influenced by the omission or misstatement. 35. What makes a fact Material? - ANSWER If there is a substantial likelihood that a reasonable investor would have viewed the fact as having significantly altered the total mix of information made available. 36. What is the materiality level that an auditor uses for determining significant accounts, significant locations, and audit procedures for those accounts and locations? - ANSWER Performance Materiality 37. An auditor has determined performance materiality has been set too high at the beginning of the audit. Which procedures should this auditor consider to detect misstatements? - ANSWER The auditor should perform additional substantive audit procedures. 38. Which risk exists at the overall financial statement level and at the assertion level and can be categorized as involving inherent risk and control risk? - ANSWER Risk of material misstatement 39. What represents an identified and assessed risk of material misstatement that requires special audit consideration? - ANSWER Significant risk 40. What is the impact on the amount of acceptable audit risk if an auditor believes the chance of financial failure of a client is high? - ANSWER The acceptable audit risk is reduced. 41. Which factor should lead an auditor to assess inherent risk as high? - ANSWER The account balance consists of a large number of complex transactions. 42. Which factor would lead an auditor to assess client business risk at a higher level? - ANSWER The client's use of information technology is incompatible across systems and processes. 43. An auditor determines overall materiality of $500,000 would be material to the income statement and $1,000,000 would be material to the balance sheet. Which amount would an auditor typically assess performance materiality to be for this client? - ANSWER 75% of $500,000 44. At which percentage do auditors commonly set posting materiality? - ANSWER 5% of planning materiality 45. What is Client Business Risk? - ANSWER Risks affecting the business operations and potential outcomes of an organization's activities. 46. What does the Risk of Material Misstatement represent? - ANSWER The Inherent and Control Risks 47. Who controls the Risk of Material Misstatement? - ANSWER The Client 48. What happens to Detection and Audit Risk when Risk of Material Misstatement is high? - ANSWER Detection Risk is lowered to reduce the Audit Risk to an acceptable level. 49. What is Inherent Risk? - ANSWER The likelihood of material misstatement without considering the effects of internal control 50. What is Control Risk? - ANSWER The risk of a misstatement occurring or not being prevented by internal controls 51. What is audit risk? - ANSWER The risk that the auditor expresses an inappropriate audit opinion when the financial statements are materially misstated. 52. What is detection risk? - ANSWER Risk that the auditors' procedures will lead them to conclude that a material misstatement does not exist in an assertion when in fact such misstatement does exist. 53. What is the audit risk model? - ANSWER Audit Risk = Inherent Risk x Control Risk x Detection Risk 54. What is engagement risk? - ANSWER Risk of potential for loss to the auditor because of being associated with the client. 55. What is the relationship between Audit Risk and Engagement Risk? - ANSWER Inverse 56. What percentages does Audit Risk use? - ANSWER 1%-5% 57. What amount of evidence is needed as Detection Risk decreases? - ANSWER More evidence is required with a lower Detection Risk

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WGU D251 ADVANCED AUDITING OBJECTIVE
ASSESSMENT ACTUAL EXAM 2025/2026
COMPLETE QUESTIONS BANK AND CORRECT
DETAILED ANSWERS WITH RATIONALES ||
100% GUARANTEED PASS
<NEWEST VERSION>


1. Misstatement - ANSWER ✓ An error, either intentional or unintentional,
that exists in a transaction or financial statement account balance.

2. Alternative procedures - ANSWER ✓ Procedures used to obtain evidence
about the existence and valuation of accounts receivable when a positive
confirmation is not returned, including examining cash collected after the
confirmation date and vouching unpaid invoices to customers' orders, sales
orders, shipping documents, and sales invoices.

3. Altman Z-scores - ANSWER ✓ A series of ratios that have predictive power
in indicating the likelihood of bankruptcy. This score is named for the
person who first introduced the concept and associated measurement.

4. Attribute - ANSWER ✓ A characteristic of the population of interest to the
auditor.

5. Attributes sampling - ANSWER ✓ A statistical sampling method used to
estimate the rate of control procedure failures based on selecting one sample
and performing the appropriate audit procedure.

6. Audit Risk - ANSWER ✓ The risk that the auditor expresses an
inappropriate audit opinion when the financial statements are materially
misstated.

7. Audit Risk Model - ANSWER ✓ Audit Risk = Inherent Risk X Control Risk
X Detention Risk

,8. What are critical audit matters (CAM), according to the Public Company
Accounting Oversight Board (PCAOB)? - ANSWER ✓ A matter involving
especially challenging, subjective, or complex auditor judgment

9. What can a user of financial statements infer from an unqualified opinion on
the financial statements? - ANSWER ✓ The auditor has no reservations
about the fairness of presentation.

10.What can be determined after an auditor has tested purchases and verified
the beginning and ending inventory balances? - ANSWER ✓ Cost of goods
sold

11.What describes the misstatements identified throughout the audit that will be
considered at the end of the audit in determining whether the financial
statements overall are materially correct? - ANSWER ✓ Posting materiality

12.What is a control that may be implemented to ensure all sales that occur are
recorded in the general ledger? - ANSWER ✓ Using prenumbered shipping,
invoice, and sales documents

13.What is a disadvantage of monetary unit sampling (MUS)? - ANSWER ✓ It
is not designed to test for understatement.

14.What is a factor of nonsampling risk? - ANSWER ✓ Not carrying out the
appropriate audit procedure

15.What is a formal document that conveys responsibility for shipped
merchandise to the shipper? - ANSWER ✓ Bill of lading

16.What is a main provision of the Foreign Corrupt Practices Act (FCPA) of
1977 that was reemphasized and expanded as part of the Sarbanes-Oxley Act
of 2002? - ANSWER ✓ Companies that have securities listed on U.S.
markets must design and maintain an adequate system of internal accounting
controls.

,17.What is a primary reason an auditor would review a client's detailed aged
accounts receivable trial balance? - ANSWER ✓ To identify amounts due
from related parties

18.What is a reason that a perpetual inventory system is preferable to a periodic
system if adequately controlled and maintained? - ANSWER ✓ It provides
information to management where book inventory is continuously in
agreement with inventory on hand with specified time periods.

19.What is a tolerable rate of deviation according to the American Institute of
Certified Public Accountants (AICPA)? - ANSWER ✓ A rate of deviation
set by the auditor to obtain an appropriate level of assurance that the rate set
by the auditor is not exceeded by the actual rate of deviation

20.What is an auditor required to evaluate as part of the going concern
assumption? - ANSWER ✓ The likelihood that the audit client will continue
operating as a going concern for a reasonable amount of time after the date
of the auditor's report

21.What is an example of the contents of an opinion paragraph in an
unqualified audit report? - ANSWER ✓ "The financial statements referred to
above present fairly . . . ."

22.What is an example of the type of analytical procedures that an auditor
would use for inventory? - ANSWER ✓ Inventory turnover for the previous
five years

23.What is an indicator of fraud in the acquisition and payment cycle? -
ANSWER ✓ When large, manual adjustments are made to the inventory
accounts

24.What is control risk in the audit risk model? - ANSWER ✓ The
susceptibility of a misstatement occurring that could be material to the
financial statements before considering any internal controls

25.Performance Materiality is also known as _____________. - ANSWER ✓
Tolerable Error

, 26.Auditor uses Performance Materiality for ____________. - ANSWER ✓
Determining significant accounts, locations, and audit procedures.

27.Performance Materiality is what percent of Planning Materiality? -
ANSWER ✓ 75%

28.What happens is Performance Materiality is set too high? - ANSWER ✓
Auditor might not perform sufficient procedures to detect material
misstatements.

29.What happens if Performance Materiality is set too low? - ANSWER ✓
Auditor might perform more substantive procedures than needed.

30.Overall Materiality is also known as _________. - ANSWER ✓ Planning
Materiality

31.Auditors use Overall Materiality to ___________. - ANSWER ✓ Determine
whether financial statements overall are materially correct.

32.What does Posting Materiality signify? - ANSWER ✓ The misstatements
identified throughout the audit that will be considered at the end of the audit
in determining whether the financial statements are materially correct.

33.What percentage is Posting Materiality commonly set at? - ANSWER ✓ 5%
of Planning Materiality

34.What is Materiality? - ANSWER ✓ The magnitude of an omission or
misstatement of accounting information that, in light of surrounding
circumstances, makes it probable that the judgment of a reasonable person
relying on the information would have been changed or influenced by the
omission or misstatement.

35.What makes a fact Material? - ANSWER ✓ If there is a substantial
likelihood that a reasonable investor would have viewed the fact as having
significantly altered the total mix of information made available.

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