D115 - OA Readiness Test Questions With Answers
What is the most common indication for genetic genetic conditions?
counseling? A) Down Syndrome
A) maternal age B) Cri du chat
B) drug exposure during the first trimester? C) Charge syndrome
C) Increased maternal alpha-fetoprotein D) Duncan disease - ANSWER -B) Cri du
D) history of previous still birth - ANSWER - chat
A) maternal age The clinical symptoms of cri du chat syndrome
The largest group of women who benefit from usually include a high-pitched cat-like cry, mental
genetic counseling are those over the age of 35 retardation, delayed development, distinctive
facial features, small head size (microcephaly),
widely-spaced eyes (hypertelorism), low birth
weight and weak muscle tone (hypotonia) in
The FNP schedules a 38-year-old primigravida infancy.
(first time pregnancy) for an amniocentesis at 16
weeks gestation. The FNP would explain that the
purpose of this procedure is to:
A) Assess for the possibility of twins When explaining the types of adaptive immunity,
B) Deterime the biliruben level the FNP student is aware that:
C) Perform genetic studies A) Adaptive immunity is a cell-mediated immune
D) Assess L/S ratio - ANSWER -C) Perform response which is
genetic studies B) Adaptive immunity is the level of immunity that
This womans age puts her at risk for Down all persons are born with.
Syndrome C) Adaptive immunity occurs when antibodies are
passed from the mother to the fetus.
D) Adaptive immunity occurs through
immunization. - ANSWER -A) Adaptive
In the most commonly seen form of Turner immunity is a cell-mediated immune response
Syndrome, how is the X chromosome affected? which is carried out by T cells and B cells.
A) Each cell has only one X chromosome? There are two types of adaptive immunity
B) Some cells have two X chromsomes, while responses: the cell-mediated immune response,
the other cells have only one. which is carried out by T cells, and the humoral
C) Each cell has two X chromsomes, but part of immune response, which is controlled by
the chromosome is missing. activated B cells and antibodies.
D) Each cell has an extra X chromosome -
ANSWER -A) Each cell has only one X
chromsome
45% of persons with Turner Syndrome have A woman has sustained a traumatic brain injury.
monosomy X meaning there is only one copy of She is able to follow simple commands and can
the X chromosome in each cell. manipulate objects. Which term describes this
state?
A) Coma
B) Persistent vegetative state
The FNP is assessing a newborn who is C) Minimally conscious
demonstrating a high-pitched cry, microcephaly, D) Locked-in syndrome - ANSWER -C)
hypertelorism, hypotonia, and a low birth weight. Minimally conscious
The FNP would suspect which of the following When responses to the environment are seen,
, D115 - OA Readiness Test Questions With Answers
the patient is said to be in a minimally conscious characteristics of GAD.
state
The FNP would expect which symptoms in a
Age and the admission of the Glasgow Coma patient with a diagnosis of schizophrenia?
Scale (GCS) are important diagnostic factors in A) High energy with varying sleep patterns and
TBI. Which GCS score describes a severe TBI? non stop conversation.
A) 13-15 B) Extreme and frequent mood swings with
B) 12-13 hyperactivity and difficulty concentrating.
C) 9-12 C) Paranoia, delusions, hallucinations, and
D) 3-8 - ANSWER -D) 3-8 diminished self-care.
The GCS is scored between 3 and 15, 3 being D) Anti-social behavior, manipulative behavior,
the worst and 15 the best. charisma, and ability to lie convincingly. -
ANSWER -C) Paranoia, delusions,
hallucinations, and diminished self-care.
The characteristics of schizophrenia are
Which term describes recurrent, intrusive paranoia, delusions, tangential thoughts,
thoughts or impulses? suspiciousness, disorganized behavior, and
A) Hallucinations hallucinations.
B) Compulsions
C) Obsessions
Obsessions are recurrent and persistent
thoughts, impulses, or images that cause The FNP is seeing a 10 year old child with
distressing emotions such as anxiety or disgust. complaints of otalgia and muffled hearing. The
D) Delusions - ANSWER -C) Obsessions mother states the child recently recovered from
Obsessions are recurrent and persistent an upper respiratory infection. The FNP suspects
thoughts, impulses, or images that cause that this child has:
distressing emotions such as anxiety or disgust. A) Acute otitis media
B) Acute otitis externa
C) Cholesteatoma
D) Chronic otitis media - ANSWER -A)
During an intake interview with a 26-year-old Acute otitis media
man diagnosed with generalized anxiety The classic presentation of otitis media is otalgia,
disorder, the FNP might observe what type of muffled hearing, popping sensation, and a recent
behavior? history of a cold or flare up of allergic rhinitis.
A) An inflated sense of self
B) Constant relation to future events
C) Inability to concentrate and irritability when
questioned The FNP understands that a potential
Impaired concentration and irritability are major complication of tonsillar infections, which is
characteristics of GAD. characterized by severe sore throat, difficulty
D) Nervousness and fear of the FNP during the swallowing, odynophagia, trismus, and a "hot
interview - ANSWER -C) Inability to potato" voice; accompanied by fever, chills and
concentrate and irritability when questioned malaise is indicative of:
Impaired concentration and irritability are major A) Retropharyngeal abscess
B) Epiglotitis
, D115 - OA Readiness Test Questions With Answers
C) Peritonsillar cellulitis macronutrient with the most influence on the
D) Peritonsillar abscess - ANSWER -D) postprandial glucose level is:
Peritonsillar abscess A) Fiber
Peritonsillar abscess is characterized by severe B) Fat
sore throat, pain or difficulty swallowing, jaw C) Protein
muscle spasms, and a hot potato voice. D) Carbohydrate - ANSWER -D)
Carbohydrate
Carbohydrate is a macronutrient with the greatest
impact on the postprandial glucose levels.
A young adult female patient presents to the
clinic with complaints of nervousness,
tremulousness, palpitations, heat intolerance,
fatigue, weight loss, and polyphagia. After a Which of the following characteristics applies to
complete history and physical, along with thyroid type 1 diabetes mellitus?
function tests, the FNP makes the diagnosis of A) Significant hyperglycemia and ketoacidosis
hyperthyroidism, recognizing that the most result from a lack of insulin.
common cause of this condition is: B) This condition is commonly diagnoses on
A) Thyroid cancer routine examination or work-up for other health
B) Graves' disease problems.
C) Pituitary adenoma C) Initial response to oral sulfonylureas is usually
D) Postpartum thyroiditis - ANSWER -B) favorable.
Graves' disease D) Insulin resistance is a significant part of the
Graves' disease, an autoimmune condition also diease. - ANSWER -A) Significant
known as "diffuse toxic goiter" is the most hyperglycemia and ketoacidosis result from a
common cause of hyperthyroidism in this age lack of insulin.
group. Type 1 DM is associated with beta cell
destruction leading to absolute insulin deficiency
resulting in significant hyperglycemia and
potential for ketoacidosis.
During an evaluation of a patient with
prediabetes, the FNP identifies which finding in
the patient's objective data that is associated
with the increasing insulin resistance? Which of the following characteristics applies to
A) Triglycerides > 150mg/dL type 2 diabetes mellitus?
B) HDL > 40 mg/dL in men and >50 mg/dL in A) Major risk factors are heredity and obesity
women B) Pear-shaped body type is commonly found
C) BP < 130/85 mm Hg C) Exogenous insulin is needed for control of the
D) FBS < 110 mg/dL - ANSWER -A) disease
Triglycerides > 150mg/dL D) Physical activity increases insulin resistance -
Improper use of glucose increases the release of ANSWER -A) Major risk factors are heredity
free fatty acids which elevates triglycerides. and obesity
Risk factors of type 2 DM include increasing age,
obesity, race, and genetics.
When prescribing a meal plan for the patient with
type 2 diabetes, the FNP tells the patient that the
, D115 - OA Readiness Test Questions With Answers
Which of the following is NOT a risk factor for A) Marijuana
endometrial cancer? B) Alcohol
A) Obesity C) Cocaine
B) Oral contraceptive use D) Heroin - ANSWER -C) Cocaine
C) Unopposed estrogen use Priapism is an uncommon condition of prolonged
D) Advancing age, greater than 50 years - penile erection. In 60% of cases the cause is
ANSWER -B) Oral contraceptive use idiopathic. The remaining 40% are associated
Oral contraceptives have been shown to reduce with spinal cord trauma, sickle cell disease,
the incidence of endometrial cancer. leukemia, pelvic tumors, or infections. It has also
been associated with cocaine use.
The FNP understands the the most accurate
explanation for the diagnosis of mixed What directly causes ovulation during the
precocious puberty is: menstrual cycle?
A) When a child develops some secondary sex A) Gradual decrease in estrogen levels.
characteristics of the opposite sex. B) Sudden increase of LH.
B) When a child does not develop any C) Sharp rise in progesterone levels.
identifiable external sex organs. D) Gradual increase in estrogen levels. -
C) When early puberty occurs due to multiple, ANSWER -B) Sudden increase of LH.
integrated causative effects. Ovulation generally occurs 1-2 hours before the
D) When early puberty has signs of physical and final progesterone surge, or about 12-36 hours
hormonal abnormalities. - ANSWER -A) after the onset of the FSH and LH surge.
When a child develops some secondary sex
characteristics of the opposite sex.
Mixed precocious puberty cases the child to
develop some secondary characteristics of the What type of ovarian cyst develops when an
opposite sex, such as the feminization of a boy. ovarian follicle is stimulated but no dominant
follicle develops and completes the maturity
process?
A) Follicular
In the majority of children experiencing delayed B) Corpus luteum
puberty, the problem is caused by: C) Corpus albicans
A) Disruption of the hypothalamus. D) Benign ovarian - ANSWER -D) Benign
B) Disruption of the pituitary. ovarian
C) Deficiencies in estrogen or testosterone. Benign ovarian, or functional cysts, are variations
D) Physiologic delays in maturation. - of normal physiologic events. Benign cysts of the
ANSWER -D) Physiologic delays in ovary are produced when a follicle is stimulated
maturation. but does not complete the maturity process.
In 95% of cases, delayed puberty is physiologic
in nature.
When assessing for the signs and symptoms of
acute respiratory distress syndrome, the absence
Priapism has been associated with the abuse of of which condition is considered characteristic?
which substance? A) Progressive respiratory distress
What is the most common indication for genetic genetic conditions?
counseling? A) Down Syndrome
A) maternal age B) Cri du chat
B) drug exposure during the first trimester? C) Charge syndrome
C) Increased maternal alpha-fetoprotein D) Duncan disease - ANSWER -B) Cri du
D) history of previous still birth - ANSWER - chat
A) maternal age The clinical symptoms of cri du chat syndrome
The largest group of women who benefit from usually include a high-pitched cat-like cry, mental
genetic counseling are those over the age of 35 retardation, delayed development, distinctive
facial features, small head size (microcephaly),
widely-spaced eyes (hypertelorism), low birth
weight and weak muscle tone (hypotonia) in
The FNP schedules a 38-year-old primigravida infancy.
(first time pregnancy) for an amniocentesis at 16
weeks gestation. The FNP would explain that the
purpose of this procedure is to:
A) Assess for the possibility of twins When explaining the types of adaptive immunity,
B) Deterime the biliruben level the FNP student is aware that:
C) Perform genetic studies A) Adaptive immunity is a cell-mediated immune
D) Assess L/S ratio - ANSWER -C) Perform response which is
genetic studies B) Adaptive immunity is the level of immunity that
This womans age puts her at risk for Down all persons are born with.
Syndrome C) Adaptive immunity occurs when antibodies are
passed from the mother to the fetus.
D) Adaptive immunity occurs through
immunization. - ANSWER -A) Adaptive
In the most commonly seen form of Turner immunity is a cell-mediated immune response
Syndrome, how is the X chromosome affected? which is carried out by T cells and B cells.
A) Each cell has only one X chromosome? There are two types of adaptive immunity
B) Some cells have two X chromsomes, while responses: the cell-mediated immune response,
the other cells have only one. which is carried out by T cells, and the humoral
C) Each cell has two X chromsomes, but part of immune response, which is controlled by
the chromosome is missing. activated B cells and antibodies.
D) Each cell has an extra X chromosome -
ANSWER -A) Each cell has only one X
chromsome
45% of persons with Turner Syndrome have A woman has sustained a traumatic brain injury.
monosomy X meaning there is only one copy of She is able to follow simple commands and can
the X chromosome in each cell. manipulate objects. Which term describes this
state?
A) Coma
B) Persistent vegetative state
The FNP is assessing a newborn who is C) Minimally conscious
demonstrating a high-pitched cry, microcephaly, D) Locked-in syndrome - ANSWER -C)
hypertelorism, hypotonia, and a low birth weight. Minimally conscious
The FNP would suspect which of the following When responses to the environment are seen,
, D115 - OA Readiness Test Questions With Answers
the patient is said to be in a minimally conscious characteristics of GAD.
state
The FNP would expect which symptoms in a
Age and the admission of the Glasgow Coma patient with a diagnosis of schizophrenia?
Scale (GCS) are important diagnostic factors in A) High energy with varying sleep patterns and
TBI. Which GCS score describes a severe TBI? non stop conversation.
A) 13-15 B) Extreme and frequent mood swings with
B) 12-13 hyperactivity and difficulty concentrating.
C) 9-12 C) Paranoia, delusions, hallucinations, and
D) 3-8 - ANSWER -D) 3-8 diminished self-care.
The GCS is scored between 3 and 15, 3 being D) Anti-social behavior, manipulative behavior,
the worst and 15 the best. charisma, and ability to lie convincingly. -
ANSWER -C) Paranoia, delusions,
hallucinations, and diminished self-care.
The characteristics of schizophrenia are
Which term describes recurrent, intrusive paranoia, delusions, tangential thoughts,
thoughts or impulses? suspiciousness, disorganized behavior, and
A) Hallucinations hallucinations.
B) Compulsions
C) Obsessions
Obsessions are recurrent and persistent
thoughts, impulses, or images that cause The FNP is seeing a 10 year old child with
distressing emotions such as anxiety or disgust. complaints of otalgia and muffled hearing. The
D) Delusions - ANSWER -C) Obsessions mother states the child recently recovered from
Obsessions are recurrent and persistent an upper respiratory infection. The FNP suspects
thoughts, impulses, or images that cause that this child has:
distressing emotions such as anxiety or disgust. A) Acute otitis media
B) Acute otitis externa
C) Cholesteatoma
D) Chronic otitis media - ANSWER -A)
During an intake interview with a 26-year-old Acute otitis media
man diagnosed with generalized anxiety The classic presentation of otitis media is otalgia,
disorder, the FNP might observe what type of muffled hearing, popping sensation, and a recent
behavior? history of a cold or flare up of allergic rhinitis.
A) An inflated sense of self
B) Constant relation to future events
C) Inability to concentrate and irritability when
questioned The FNP understands that a potential
Impaired concentration and irritability are major complication of tonsillar infections, which is
characteristics of GAD. characterized by severe sore throat, difficulty
D) Nervousness and fear of the FNP during the swallowing, odynophagia, trismus, and a "hot
interview - ANSWER -C) Inability to potato" voice; accompanied by fever, chills and
concentrate and irritability when questioned malaise is indicative of:
Impaired concentration and irritability are major A) Retropharyngeal abscess
B) Epiglotitis
, D115 - OA Readiness Test Questions With Answers
C) Peritonsillar cellulitis macronutrient with the most influence on the
D) Peritonsillar abscess - ANSWER -D) postprandial glucose level is:
Peritonsillar abscess A) Fiber
Peritonsillar abscess is characterized by severe B) Fat
sore throat, pain or difficulty swallowing, jaw C) Protein
muscle spasms, and a hot potato voice. D) Carbohydrate - ANSWER -D)
Carbohydrate
Carbohydrate is a macronutrient with the greatest
impact on the postprandial glucose levels.
A young adult female patient presents to the
clinic with complaints of nervousness,
tremulousness, palpitations, heat intolerance,
fatigue, weight loss, and polyphagia. After a Which of the following characteristics applies to
complete history and physical, along with thyroid type 1 diabetes mellitus?
function tests, the FNP makes the diagnosis of A) Significant hyperglycemia and ketoacidosis
hyperthyroidism, recognizing that the most result from a lack of insulin.
common cause of this condition is: B) This condition is commonly diagnoses on
A) Thyroid cancer routine examination or work-up for other health
B) Graves' disease problems.
C) Pituitary adenoma C) Initial response to oral sulfonylureas is usually
D) Postpartum thyroiditis - ANSWER -B) favorable.
Graves' disease D) Insulin resistance is a significant part of the
Graves' disease, an autoimmune condition also diease. - ANSWER -A) Significant
known as "diffuse toxic goiter" is the most hyperglycemia and ketoacidosis result from a
common cause of hyperthyroidism in this age lack of insulin.
group. Type 1 DM is associated with beta cell
destruction leading to absolute insulin deficiency
resulting in significant hyperglycemia and
potential for ketoacidosis.
During an evaluation of a patient with
prediabetes, the FNP identifies which finding in
the patient's objective data that is associated
with the increasing insulin resistance? Which of the following characteristics applies to
A) Triglycerides > 150mg/dL type 2 diabetes mellitus?
B) HDL > 40 mg/dL in men and >50 mg/dL in A) Major risk factors are heredity and obesity
women B) Pear-shaped body type is commonly found
C) BP < 130/85 mm Hg C) Exogenous insulin is needed for control of the
D) FBS < 110 mg/dL - ANSWER -A) disease
Triglycerides > 150mg/dL D) Physical activity increases insulin resistance -
Improper use of glucose increases the release of ANSWER -A) Major risk factors are heredity
free fatty acids which elevates triglycerides. and obesity
Risk factors of type 2 DM include increasing age,
obesity, race, and genetics.
When prescribing a meal plan for the patient with
type 2 diabetes, the FNP tells the patient that the
, D115 - OA Readiness Test Questions With Answers
Which of the following is NOT a risk factor for A) Marijuana
endometrial cancer? B) Alcohol
A) Obesity C) Cocaine
B) Oral contraceptive use D) Heroin - ANSWER -C) Cocaine
C) Unopposed estrogen use Priapism is an uncommon condition of prolonged
D) Advancing age, greater than 50 years - penile erection. In 60% of cases the cause is
ANSWER -B) Oral contraceptive use idiopathic. The remaining 40% are associated
Oral contraceptives have been shown to reduce with spinal cord trauma, sickle cell disease,
the incidence of endometrial cancer. leukemia, pelvic tumors, or infections. It has also
been associated with cocaine use.
The FNP understands the the most accurate
explanation for the diagnosis of mixed What directly causes ovulation during the
precocious puberty is: menstrual cycle?
A) When a child develops some secondary sex A) Gradual decrease in estrogen levels.
characteristics of the opposite sex. B) Sudden increase of LH.
B) When a child does not develop any C) Sharp rise in progesterone levels.
identifiable external sex organs. D) Gradual increase in estrogen levels. -
C) When early puberty occurs due to multiple, ANSWER -B) Sudden increase of LH.
integrated causative effects. Ovulation generally occurs 1-2 hours before the
D) When early puberty has signs of physical and final progesterone surge, or about 12-36 hours
hormonal abnormalities. - ANSWER -A) after the onset of the FSH and LH surge.
When a child develops some secondary sex
characteristics of the opposite sex.
Mixed precocious puberty cases the child to
develop some secondary characteristics of the What type of ovarian cyst develops when an
opposite sex, such as the feminization of a boy. ovarian follicle is stimulated but no dominant
follicle develops and completes the maturity
process?
A) Follicular
In the majority of children experiencing delayed B) Corpus luteum
puberty, the problem is caused by: C) Corpus albicans
A) Disruption of the hypothalamus. D) Benign ovarian - ANSWER -D) Benign
B) Disruption of the pituitary. ovarian
C) Deficiencies in estrogen or testosterone. Benign ovarian, or functional cysts, are variations
D) Physiologic delays in maturation. - of normal physiologic events. Benign cysts of the
ANSWER -D) Physiologic delays in ovary are produced when a follicle is stimulated
maturation. but does not complete the maturity process.
In 95% of cases, delayed puberty is physiologic
in nature.
When assessing for the signs and symptoms of
acute respiratory distress syndrome, the absence
Priapism has been associated with the abuse of of which condition is considered characteristic?
which substance? A) Progressive respiratory distress
