1
ATI RN Maternal Newborn Proctored
Exam 2025 – Forms A & B Additional
Set | Updated Questions with
Rationales & 100% Verified Answers
Below are two sets of 70 questions each (140 total) for the ATI RN Maternal Newborn
Proctored Exam 2025, Forms A and B, as an additional practice set to supplement previous
materials. The questions cover fetal monitoring, labor stages, postpartum care, and
newborn assessments, aligned with ATI standards and Next Generation NCLEX (NGN)
principles. Each question includes the correct answer in blue, followed by a detailed
rationale. The content is presented in editable text format.
Form A: ATI RN Maternal Newborn Proctored Exam 2025
(Additional Set)
Fetal Monitoring
1. A nurse is reviewing a fetal heart rate (FHR) tracing with minimal variability and
no decelerations. What is the category?
a) Category I
b) Category II
c) Category III
d) Indeterminate
Answer: b) Category II
Rationale: Minimal variability with no decelerations is a Category II tracing, indicating
an indeterminate fetal status that requires close monitoring and possible interventions to
improve fetal oxygenation.
2. A client in labor has recurrent variable decelerations. What is an appropriate
nursing intervention?
a) Administer oxygen at 4 L/min via nasal cannula
b) Perform amnioinfusion if ordered
c) Increase oxytocin infusion rate
d) Encourage pushing with contractions
Answer: b) Perform amnioinfusion if ordered
Rationale: Amnioinfusion, if ordered, can relieve umbilical cord compression causing
, 2
variable decelerations by increasing amniotic fluid volume. Oxygen is typically given at
8–10 L/min via nonrebreather for fetal distress.
3. Which maternal condition is most likely to cause fetal tachycardia?
a) Hypoglycemia
b) Dehydration
c) Infection
d) Hypotension
Answer: c) Infection
Rationale: Maternal infection or fever often causes fetal tachycardia (FHR >160 bpm)
due to increased metabolic demand or hypoxia, requiring maternal temperature
assessment and provider notification.
4. A nurse is applying an external fetal monitor. Where should the ultrasound
transducer be placed?
a) Over the maternal fundus
b) Near the maternal umbilicus
c) Over the fetal back
d) At the maternal symphysis pubis
Answer: c) Over the fetal back
Rationale: The ultrasound transducer is placed over the fetal back, identified via
Leopold’s maneuvers, to accurately capture the FHR.
5. A client at 39 weeks gestation has a nonstress test showing no accelerations. What is
the nurse’s next action?
a) Reassure the client
b) Repeat the test in 12 hours
c) Notify the provider
d) Administer glucose to the mother
Answer: c) Notify the provider
Rationale: A nonreactive nonstress test (no accelerations) suggests possible fetal
compromise, requiring provider evaluation for further testing, such as a biophysical
profile.
6. What does a fetal scalp blood pH of 7.18 indicate?
a) Normal fetal status
b) Fetal acidosis
c) Fetal alkalosis
d) Inconclusive result
Answer: b) Fetal acidosis
Rationale: A fetal scalp pH below 7.20 indicates acidosis, reflecting fetal hypoxia and
necessitating urgent interventions, such as delivery.
7. A nurse observes a FHR drop to 90 bpm for 90 seconds during a contraction. What
is this finding?
a) Early deceleration
b) Late deceleration
c) Variable deceleration
d) Prolonged deceleration
Answer: c) Variable deceleration
, 3
Rationale: A sudden FHR drop of variable duration and timing, typically related to cord
compression, is a variable deceleration. Prolonged decelerations last >2 minutes.
8. Which FHR finding is most reassuring during labor?
a) Absent variability
b) Accelerations with fetal movement
c) Recurrent late decelerations
d) Baseline of 100 bpm
Answer: b) Accelerations with fetal movement
Rationale: Accelerations with fetal movement indicate a healthy fetus with adequate
oxygenation and neurological function, a hallmark of a Category I tracing.
Labor Stages
9. A client at 6 cm dilation reports intense contractions every 2 minutes. What stage
and phase of labor is this?
a) First stage, latent phase
b) First stage, active phase
c) Second stage
d) Transition phase
Answer: b) First stage, active phase
Rationale: Cervical dilation of 6 cm with frequent, intense contractions indicates the
active phase of the first stage of labor (4–7 cm).
10. A client in the second stage of labor has a fetal station of +1. What does this mean?
a) Fetal head is above the ischial spines
b) Fetal head is at the ischial spines
c) Fetal head is 1 cm below the ischial spines
d) Fetal head is not engaged
Answer: c) Fetal head is 1 cm below the ischial spines
Rationale: A station of +1 indicates the fetal presenting part is 1 cm below the maternal
ischial spines, showing descent during labor.
11. Which sign indicates imminent delivery of the placenta in the third stage of labor?
a) Increased vaginal bleeding
b) Gush of amniotic fluid
c) Uterine shape change to globular
d) Contractions stopping completely
Answer: c) Uterine shape change to globular
Rationale: A globular uterine shape, along with cord lengthening and a gush of blood,
indicates placental separation during the third stage.
12. A client in the transition phase is irritable and reports nausea. What is the nurse’s
best action?
a) Administer an antiemetic
b) Provide a cool cloth and reassurance
c) Encourage immediate pushing
d) Perform a vaginal exam
Answer: b) Provide a cool cloth and reassurance
ATI RN Maternal Newborn Proctored
Exam 2025 – Forms A & B Additional
Set | Updated Questions with
Rationales & 100% Verified Answers
Below are two sets of 70 questions each (140 total) for the ATI RN Maternal Newborn
Proctored Exam 2025, Forms A and B, as an additional practice set to supplement previous
materials. The questions cover fetal monitoring, labor stages, postpartum care, and
newborn assessments, aligned with ATI standards and Next Generation NCLEX (NGN)
principles. Each question includes the correct answer in blue, followed by a detailed
rationale. The content is presented in editable text format.
Form A: ATI RN Maternal Newborn Proctored Exam 2025
(Additional Set)
Fetal Monitoring
1. A nurse is reviewing a fetal heart rate (FHR) tracing with minimal variability and
no decelerations. What is the category?
a) Category I
b) Category II
c) Category III
d) Indeterminate
Answer: b) Category II
Rationale: Minimal variability with no decelerations is a Category II tracing, indicating
an indeterminate fetal status that requires close monitoring and possible interventions to
improve fetal oxygenation.
2. A client in labor has recurrent variable decelerations. What is an appropriate
nursing intervention?
a) Administer oxygen at 4 L/min via nasal cannula
b) Perform amnioinfusion if ordered
c) Increase oxytocin infusion rate
d) Encourage pushing with contractions
Answer: b) Perform amnioinfusion if ordered
Rationale: Amnioinfusion, if ordered, can relieve umbilical cord compression causing
, 2
variable decelerations by increasing amniotic fluid volume. Oxygen is typically given at
8–10 L/min via nonrebreather for fetal distress.
3. Which maternal condition is most likely to cause fetal tachycardia?
a) Hypoglycemia
b) Dehydration
c) Infection
d) Hypotension
Answer: c) Infection
Rationale: Maternal infection or fever often causes fetal tachycardia (FHR >160 bpm)
due to increased metabolic demand or hypoxia, requiring maternal temperature
assessment and provider notification.
4. A nurse is applying an external fetal monitor. Where should the ultrasound
transducer be placed?
a) Over the maternal fundus
b) Near the maternal umbilicus
c) Over the fetal back
d) At the maternal symphysis pubis
Answer: c) Over the fetal back
Rationale: The ultrasound transducer is placed over the fetal back, identified via
Leopold’s maneuvers, to accurately capture the FHR.
5. A client at 39 weeks gestation has a nonstress test showing no accelerations. What is
the nurse’s next action?
a) Reassure the client
b) Repeat the test in 12 hours
c) Notify the provider
d) Administer glucose to the mother
Answer: c) Notify the provider
Rationale: A nonreactive nonstress test (no accelerations) suggests possible fetal
compromise, requiring provider evaluation for further testing, such as a biophysical
profile.
6. What does a fetal scalp blood pH of 7.18 indicate?
a) Normal fetal status
b) Fetal acidosis
c) Fetal alkalosis
d) Inconclusive result
Answer: b) Fetal acidosis
Rationale: A fetal scalp pH below 7.20 indicates acidosis, reflecting fetal hypoxia and
necessitating urgent interventions, such as delivery.
7. A nurse observes a FHR drop to 90 bpm for 90 seconds during a contraction. What
is this finding?
a) Early deceleration
b) Late deceleration
c) Variable deceleration
d) Prolonged deceleration
Answer: c) Variable deceleration
, 3
Rationale: A sudden FHR drop of variable duration and timing, typically related to cord
compression, is a variable deceleration. Prolonged decelerations last >2 minutes.
8. Which FHR finding is most reassuring during labor?
a) Absent variability
b) Accelerations with fetal movement
c) Recurrent late decelerations
d) Baseline of 100 bpm
Answer: b) Accelerations with fetal movement
Rationale: Accelerations with fetal movement indicate a healthy fetus with adequate
oxygenation and neurological function, a hallmark of a Category I tracing.
Labor Stages
9. A client at 6 cm dilation reports intense contractions every 2 minutes. What stage
and phase of labor is this?
a) First stage, latent phase
b) First stage, active phase
c) Second stage
d) Transition phase
Answer: b) First stage, active phase
Rationale: Cervical dilation of 6 cm with frequent, intense contractions indicates the
active phase of the first stage of labor (4–7 cm).
10. A client in the second stage of labor has a fetal station of +1. What does this mean?
a) Fetal head is above the ischial spines
b) Fetal head is at the ischial spines
c) Fetal head is 1 cm below the ischial spines
d) Fetal head is not engaged
Answer: c) Fetal head is 1 cm below the ischial spines
Rationale: A station of +1 indicates the fetal presenting part is 1 cm below the maternal
ischial spines, showing descent during labor.
11. Which sign indicates imminent delivery of the placenta in the third stage of labor?
a) Increased vaginal bleeding
b) Gush of amniotic fluid
c) Uterine shape change to globular
d) Contractions stopping completely
Answer: c) Uterine shape change to globular
Rationale: A globular uterine shape, along with cord lengthening and a gush of blood,
indicates placental separation during the third stage.
12. A client in the transition phase is irritable and reports nausea. What is the nurse’s
best action?
a) Administer an antiemetic
b) Provide a cool cloth and reassurance
c) Encourage immediate pushing
d) Perform a vaginal exam
Answer: b) Provide a cool cloth and reassurance
